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Well, yes, it is a "condition" that you believe to be saved--and Hebrews even warns about falling away from the faith after having already believed (Heb 3:5-19).

"Law of Faith" (Ro 3:27) means "God requires you to believe", hence the phrase "obedience of faith" (ro 1:5), and "faith is counted as righteousness" (I did the thing God wanted me to do") (Ro 4:5). Not sure in what corner of the internet this is supposed to be "controversial". Who actually...

I used to think that way--and I really wish it were that simple--but I've seen FGTs with real grace (and many without it), so I have changed my mind. I've seen it with FGTs--they tend to have no control or interest in controlling their behavior or words, but it's by no means a rule.

Paul distinguishes between faith and works, so, no, what you are asserting is incoherent.

Even if "God commands all men to believe", Paul distinguishes between faith and works, so, no, what you are saying is incoherent.

"Salvation" : the Israelites were "saved" from slavery in Egypt through Passover, and we were "saved" from slavery to satan in his kingdom through "Christ our Passover", yet the Israelites sinned after salvation, and became "reprobates", which Paul says can happen to us (1 Co 9:27 - 1 Co 10:11)...

Or maybe neither of the commands listed in 1 Jn 3:23,24 qualify as "works" : "works" corresponds to "a righteousness of my own", whereas "Grace through faith" corresponds to "the righteousness of God". Paul says "I was abundant in labors above them all, yet not I, but the grace with me", and...

This is why I like discussion : I can outsource help to find my errors, so I can improve.

You raise a good point : the giving of thanks is only said to follow the eating of food--even when Paul eats the food in 1 Co, he gives thanks--not after other acts of faith. Therefore, it seems giving of thanks really is because of the food itself. I had something else in mind, bc of the...

Sounds similar to the conclusion of the OP. Thanks

Question : Why does the person "give thanks" after he walks in his conviction? I wanted to discuss this aspect of the Gospel (the Gospel is the power of God, because "in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith"--contrasted against "a form of godliness, but denying the power...

So, to me, the "sin nature" is "the body of sin", "the outer man".

As a result of Adam's sin, we inherit tainted/defiled flesh. Sin's Law is in the flesh, and Sin works its own works in our inward members before we are saved.

That user is incorrect. Sin is defined as "slavery". Who is being "enslaved"? The inward man. Spiritual slavery. That's why our salvation was typed by the Jews' salvation from slavery. Ours by the blood of the Lamb, theirs by the blood of lambs. What happens is Sin in the outward man enslaves...

K Yeah "body of sin", the outer man in which there is Sin's Law, should be the "sin nature" that was done away with when we died with Christ.

1. I responded to the article, and why I disagreed, in #1442. 2. The "Got Questions" article : "We don’t lose our sin nature once we receive Christ. The Bible says that sin remains in us and that a struggle with that old nature will continue as long as we are in this world. Paul bemoaned his...

@GodsGrace "The circumcision made without hands" refers to the anti-type to circumcision, the removal of the body of sin, which happened through dying with Christ--the death of the outward man, the body.

Romans 7 17But now, no longer am I the one doing it, but sin that dwells in me. ... 20But if I do the very thing I do not want, I am no longer the one doing it, but sin that dwells in me.

Remember the Law says defiled earthenware cannot be purged, but must be destroyed, whereas metallic vessels can be purged--the inner man can be purged, but the outer man, formed from the dust, must be destroyed.

(Romans 7:1-6 is a rejoinder to Romans 6:14.)