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Did Christ's statements about the new-birth only pertain to Nicodemus and those Jews or people Christ preached to? Or, do those statements mean that the new-birth is necessary for anyone of all generations in order to be saved? Stranger

Yes, you did say that. Because what you are saying is that to interpret certain passages or books of Scripture, as looking forward to the future or looking back to the past, would not have made sense to the original audience. One doesn't have to have helicopters or nuclear wars to understand...

(Num.22:28) " And the LORD opened the mouth of the ass, and she said unto Balaam, What have I done unto thee, that thou hast smitten me these three times?" So, do asses talk? Stranger

And so, (John 3:5-7), concerning the new-birth, must mean it was dealing with a specific act or need of Nicodemus. Stranger

Read again. "I never knew you". Are you saying one can be a Christian, but Christ never knew them? Stranger

It is common for the enemy to portray the woman who is a follower of God and Christ as wrong because she is 'forced' to be submissive. Feminism hates this Godly submission and so must attack it. Don't you watch the news? But in reality, the greatest freedom for the woman is in Jesus Christ...

Who said the Scriptures wouldn't have made sense to an original audience? You...not me. Stranger

(Luke 24:27) " And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself." (Luke 24:44) " And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were...

Because that is the testimony of Scripture. What you should be asking is , 'what is the purpose of Mary being a perpetual virgin?', as taught by the Roman church. Stranger

Pay attention. It says 'I never knew you'. What a revelation that is. These were never believers. Never Christians. Stranger

(Luke 1:36) "And, behold, thy cousin Elisabeth,...." Stranger

Again, I ask, was there anytime in Scripture where the term 'firstborn' was used and there were not others born to them? Stranger

Well, at least we got away from the mess that is the Roman church. And as a result have preserved the truth of the Scriptures and faith in Christ for some 600 years. And at least we got away from the accepted doctrine of the Roman faith that was and has deteriorated into apostasy and...

You can call them 'early church fathers' if you want. They are not the 'early Church'. The early Church knew nothing of the perpetual virginity of Mary. Concerning post #91, nothing is said of why Mary's perpetual virginity is important. Nothing. And much of what is said is...

All of the Reformers were Romanists before. Thus they were infected with the Roman doctrine. And many did not go far enough in the separation of doctrine. So if these did believe in the perpetual virginity of Mary, they were wrong. See, a Protestant is not forced to believe some doctrine...

Well,these are not the early church. And those Reformers your mentioned were Romanists before. And there are some reformers in there, if you're honest in your quotes. But you have to remember, Luther had other things, baggage, from the Romanist Church that he did not let go of. Which is why...

You gave the Romanist position. It doesn't say at all what you want it to say. Which means you have to twist it, as you do. No, you gave me your definition of 'firstborn'. All I asked was is there anytime the 'firstborn' word is used in Scripture where there were not others born afterward...

No Christians are going to hell. Stranger

Sure. You're baling because your integrity has been impugned. Ok. If you say so. I told you earlier to quit wasting your time. Perhaps you should have listened then. Stranger

Nice speech. No substance. Only the Romanists have believed in the perpetual virginity of Mary. The early Church did not. Which men of the Reformation believed in it? My point of view is the Scriptures point of view. I don't have to do linguistic gymnastics to make them say something...