I'm sorry, where did I state that? You continue to make a fool of yourself with every post you make. You foolishly made an assumption about my post even though I only posted scripture without any commentary. Are you paranoid? There's something VERY OFF about you and I think you need professional help.
Clearly, God is our authority and we get our understanding of His authority from scripture.
The Bible doesn't teach that ANYWHERE.
Do you agree that "all Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, so that the servant of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work" or not?
Never changed; still taught today.
(CCC115-116) The Quadriga method used the following four categories:
- Literal/Literary (teaching) - the text as it is written
- Analogical (reproof) - matters of faith
- Anagogical (correction) - matters of hope/prophecy
- Moral (training in righteousness) - matters of charity
The analogical, anagogical and moral senses of the Bible were known collectively as the spiritual senses.
The 'reformers' rejected the BIBLICAL fourfold method of exegesis in favor of a more literal approach,
and ignored 2 Tim 3:16!!!
Do you think we should be like the Bereans and take what others say and study scripture for ourselves to see if it is true or not? If you answer yes to both of these questions, then what is your problem?
The Bereans were GREEK Pharisees, and were using the GREEK Septuigant that included the GREEK Deuterocanonicals AS SCRIPTURE 200 years before Christ.
Acts 17:11-12 – here we see the verse “they searched the Scriptures.” This refers to the Bereans who used the Old Testament to confirm the oral teachings about the Messiah. The verses do not say the Bereans searched the Scriptures
alone (which is what Protestants are attempting to prove when quoting this passage). Moreover,
the Bereans accepted the oral teaching from Paul as God’s word before searching the Scriptures, which disproves the Berean’s use of sola Scriptura.
Acts 17:11-12 – Also, the Bereans, being more “noble” or “fair minded,” meant that they were more reasonable and less violent than the Thessalonians in Acts. 17:5-9. Their greater fairmindedness was not because of their use of Scripture, which Paul directed his listeners to do as was his custom (Acts 17:3).
My only intention in posting them was because they contain things that we should all understand and take to heart, which is why I did not address it to anyone specifically. I didn't add commentary to the passages I posted because they are very straightforward and self-explanatory. Naturally, that escaped you.
2 Tim. 3:16 – this verse says that Scripture is “profitable” for every good work, but not exclusive. The word “profitable” is “ophelimos” in Greek. “Ophelimos” only means useful, which underscores that Scripture is not mandatory or exclusive. You unbiblically argue that profitable means exclusive.
2 Tim. 3:16 – further, the verse “all Scripture” uses the words “pasa graphe” which actually means every (not all) Scripture. This means every passage of Scripture is useful. Thus, your reading of “pasa graphe” would mean every single passage of Scripture is exclusive. This would mean Christians could not only use “sola Matthew,” or “sola Mark,” but could rely on one single verse from a Gospel as the exclusive authority of God’s word. This, of course, is not true and even Protestants would agree. Also, “pasa graphe” cannot mean “all of Scripture” because
there was no New Testament canon to which Paul could have been referring, unless Protestants argue that the New Testament is not being included by Paul.
2 Tim. 3:16 – also, these inspired Old Testament Scriptures Paul is referring to included the deuterocanonical books which the Protestants removed from the Bible 1,500 years later.
2 Tim. 3:17 – Paul’s reference to the “man of God” who may be complete
refers to a clergyman, not a layman. It is an instruction to a bishop of the Church. So, although Protestants use it to prove their case, the passage is not even relevant to most of the faithful.
2 Tim. 3:17 – further,
Paul’s use of the word “complete” for every good work is “artios” which simply means the clergy is “suitable” or “fit.” Also, artios does not describe the Scriptures, it describes the clergyman. So, Protestants cannot use this verse to argue the Scriptures are complete.
James 1:4 – steadfastness also makes a man “perfect (teleioi) and complete (holoklepoi), lacking nothing.” This verse is important because “teleioi”and “holoklepoi” are much stronger words than “artios,” but Protestants do not argue that steadfastness is all one needs to be a Christian.
Titus 3:8 – good deeds are also “profitable” to men. For Protestants especially, profitable cannot mean “exclusive” here.
2 Tim 2:21- purity is also profitable for “any good work” (“pan ergon agathon”). This wording is the same as 2 Tim. 3:17, which shows that the Scriptures are not exclusive, and that other things (good deeds and purity) are also profitable to men.
Col. 4:12 – prayer also makes men “fully assured.” No where does Scripture say the Christian faith is based solely on a book.
Matt. 28:20 – “observe ALL I have commanded,” but, as we see in John 20:30; 21:25, not ALL Jesus taught is in Scripture. So there must be things outside of Scripture that we must observe. This disproves “Bible alone” theology.
Mark 16:15 – Jesus commands the apostles to “preach,” not write, and only three apostles wrote. The others who did not write were not less faithful to Jesus, because Jesus gave them no directive to write. There is no evidence in the Bible or elsewhere that Jesus intended the Bible to be sole authority of the Christian faith.
Luke 1:1-4 – Luke acknowledges that the faithful have already received the teachings of Christ, and is writing his Gospel only so that they “realize the certainty of the teachings you have received.” Luke writes to verify the oral tradition they already received.
John 20:30; 21:25 – Jesus did many other things not written in the Scriptures. These have been preserved through the oral apostolic tradition and they are equally a part of the Deposit of Faith.
Acts 8:30-31; Heb. 5:12 – these verses show that we need help in interpreting the Scriptures. We cannot interpret them infallibly on our own. We need divinely appointed leadership within the Church to teach us.
1 Cor. 5:9-11 – this verse shows that a prior letter written to Corinth is equally authoritative but not part of the New Testament canon. Paul is again appealing to a source outside of Scripture to teach the Corinthians. This disproves Scripture alone.
Col. 4:16 – this verse shows that a prior letter written to Laodicea is equally authoritative but not part of the New Testament canon. Paul once again appeals to a source outside of the Bible to teach about the Word of God.
1 Thess. 2:13 – Paul says, “when you
received the word of God, which you
heard from us..”
How can the Bible be teaching first century Christians that only the Bible is their infallible source of teaching if, at the same time, oral revelation was being given to them as well? You can try to claim that there is one authority (Bible) while allowing two sources of authority (Bible and oral revelation) which makes no sense.
Contents1 Scripture1.1 I. Scripture Alone Disproves “Scripture Alone”1.2 II. “All Scripture is Inspired”- 2 Tim. 3:16-171.3 III. Other Passages used to Support “Sola Scriptura”2 Tradition / Church Fathers2.1 I. Scripture Must be Interpreted in Light of Church Tradition2.2 II. Scripture is not...
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