OzSpen
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- Mar 30, 2015
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The Barrd,The Barrd said:Oh, Oz!
I did a whole "wall'o'text" to explain what it took you a couple of lines!
Perhaps I ought to go back to bed...
Thank you for your compliment. May the Lord help us to know his Word and to express it as clearly as possible.
However, perhaps it has as much to do with the fact that I was hurrying to finish what I wrote as my wife was calling for breakfast. One of our sons and his family are with us for a couple of days. The household is rather busy - both boys (14 & 16) and Dad don't go anywhere without their laptops. All of them love the Lord. The 16 year old, Joseph, and I had some in-depth discussions yesterday on theological and apologetic topics. He's a fan of C S Lewis and we bought him 3 Lewis' books for his birthday this month.
In interpreting the Book of James (which is included in the topic of this thread), we need to understand that Scripture interprets Scripture and Col 3:11 (ESV) gives us the biblical perspective on Jews vs Gentiles, etc: 'Here there is not Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave,free; but Christ is all, and in all'. So the Book of James while addressed to Christian Jews who were scattered is meant for all since 'there is not Greek and Jew', etc in God's kingdom.
Blessings from Down Under,
Oz