CL,
Second Peter 3:16 is not Paul speaking. It is Peter speaking God-breathed Scripture.
We have this example from 1 Cor 7:
In 7:10, Paul wrote: “But to the married I give instructions,
not I, but the Lord, that the wife should not leave her husband.”
However, 2 verses later (7:12) he wrote: “But to the rest
I say, not the Lord, that if any brother has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he must not divorce her” (emphasis added).
Is Paul teaching in the first statement the instructions of the Lord, but in the latter verse gives his own opinion?
Read an explanation in, '
God’s Word or Paul’s Personal Opinion?'
Oz