As stated in the OP, Revelation is in apocalyptic genre, and in the genre, time is used symbolically. Just as Daniel cloaked the distant event of Christ’s first advent in the imminence (within a generation) of “the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem,” Christ cloaked his distant return in the imminent event in which one stone wouldn’t be left upon another at the destruction of the Herod’s temple, which agrees with Daniel’s chapter 2, that in the days of the kings that supplant Rome, he will set up his kingdom.Alcazar was likely the first to systematically apply preterism "to revelation", but he was not the first to apply preterism to the olivet disourse nor daniel. Alcazar held that Revelation 1-11 was about the first century conflict between church and Jewish synagoge, and that chapters 12-19 were about the Church's conflict with Rome, where he interpreted Babylon as Rome.
- "Applying the New Jerusalem to the Catholic Church, Alcazar contended that the Apocalypse describes the twofold war of the church in the early centuries—one with the Jewish synagogue, and the other with paganism—resulting in victory over both adversaries. Revelation 1 to 11 he applied to the rejection of the Jews and the desolation of Jerusalem by the Romans. Revelation 12 to 19 Alcazar allotted to the overthrow of Roman paganism and the conversion of the empire to the church, the judgment of the great Harlot being effected by the downfall of pagan idolatry; Revelation 20 he applied to the final persecution by Antichrist, and the day of judgment; and chapters 21 and 22, referring to the New Jerusalem, he made descriptive of the glorious and endless triumphant state of the Roman church."
- "Alcazar made the church’s millennium of rest to date from the downfall of old pagan Rome—his apocalyptical Babylon—with the destruction of Roman idolatry in the spiritual fires of the Catholic religion. 13 Such, in brief, was Alcazar’s Preterism."
- (https://m.egwwritings.org/en/book/1579.3220#3226)
That being said, I don't agree with Alcaraz because I believe he interprets chapters 17-18 beyond the olivet discourse.
WITHIN in the context of revelation 17-18, Revelation doesn't actually reveal the true identity of Babylon. It keeps it extremely vague. John is not told whether Babylon is Rome, the papacy, "protestant liberalism", the USA, Jerusalem, etc, etc........Instead, John is simply told its the "great city". Therefore, I can't determine the true objective interpretation of the apocalyptic, symbolic, and hyperpolic meaning of babylon the great from revelation 17-18 alone.
So, I think an important question to ask is - What is the function of the book of Revelation? It is to "reveal" what must soon take place for the time is near. Therefore, Does the "what must soon take place" refer to the eschatology of the olivet discourse OR is it going beyond the olivet discourse to provide brand new information? In otherwords, can I use the olivet discourse to intepret Revelation OR can I not use the olivet discourse to interpret Revelation because Revelation is the addition of new information to the olivet discourse?
Furthermore, we can’t have Christ revert to the Old Covenant in his mediation, which both preterism and futurism maintain. The temple is Revelation has to be the one built without hands and not one concerning animal sacrifices,
1 Corinthians 3
16 Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you?
Revelation concerns the mediation of the New Covenant people, not the Old. As a result, the judgments in Revelation are upon the house of God in this age, not the past one,
1 Peter 4
17 For the time is come that judgment must begin at the house of God: and if it first begin at us, what shall the end be of them that obey not the gospel of God?
It was the Romans that made the merchants rich during John’s time, not the Jews, but pagan Romans can’t fall from moral rectitude, which the prophecy about mystery Babylon transmits. The Jews couldn’t even sit down and eat with the Gentiles, so how could they have committed fornication with the kings of the earth and enriched the merchants before 70 AD? History affirms the Romans invented the “Law Merchant” to maintain economic hegemony in their empire, which collapsed at the end of their empire, ending the political status of the merchants in the kingdoms that supplanted Rome. With the rise of the papacy, the merchants were relegated to an inferior position in society and kept there until the rise of Protestantism. It was the Protestants that restored the Law Merchant and held intercourse with the kings of the earth and established secular societies in the world in which the merchants were enriched, in fulfillment of the prophecy that there would be a great falling away before the Day of the LORD,
2 Thessalonians 2:
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.
The first-century Jews don’t fit the prophecy in any substantive study, and neither do the Jews in our time; only apostate, magisterial Protestantism fits the prophecy of the Mystery of Babylon, and from a Historicist’s hermeneutic.
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