Selene said:
Jesus' died for the remission of sins, but it was only for past sins, not present or future sins. After Christ died, did you not noticed that St. Peter stated to repent and be baptized for the forgiveness of sins. If Christ's death on the cross covered everyone's sins, why would Peter asked those to repent and be baptize for the forgiveness of sins?? Furthermore, the Bible does state that Christ's death on the cross was for PAST sins.
Romans 3:25 Whom God hath set forth [to be] a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
St. Peter clearly stated to repent, be baptized for the forgiveness of sins and receive the Holy Spirit......and in that order (See Acts 2:38).
To be baptize in the name of Jesus Christ is to be baptized in the way Christ was baptized......not in the way John baptizes. We baptize infants just like the Early Christians did because baptism is not only to cleanse the original sin from the infants, but to also make them a child of God because baptism replaced circumcision just as St. Paul stated. When a person or infant is baptized, he/she is either immersed in water (or water is sprinkled on their head), and the priest uses the "laying of hands" as he baptized in the name of Jesus. The Holy Spirit then comes down and declare "This is my son/daughter whom I am well pleased". This is Christ's baptism......not the way John baptized. The "laying of hands" is used during baptism, which brings about the Holy Spirit (See Acts 8:18, 1 Timothy 4:14, and Hebrews 6:2).
In the Old Testament, the circumcision of babies was a sign showing that they belong to the chosen people of God (See Genesis 17:11-14). Children who were eight days old were circumcised so that they belong to the chosen people of God (Israel). In the New Testament, baptism replaced circumcision and became the sign that those who were baptized belong to the family of God.
Colossians 2:11-12 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ: Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with [him] through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.
St. Paul compared circumcision with baptism, but it was a circumcision made without hands......a circumcision of Christ. This circumcision of Christ is baptism...the kind of baptism that Christ underwent at the Jordan River.....a baptism of water and spirit.
St. Peter knew that baptism can save because baptism came from God. All things that comes from God brings eternal life, which is salvation. Are you saying that those things that come from God cannot save??
Where do you get the idear that Jesus only died for past sins???.
You obviousley don't read my posts, Peter NEVER said be baptised for the remission of sins, The tranlator said that.
It is whe a person repents, That they receive the remission of sins, Lk 24: 47. Acts 2: 38, [In the proper text], Not when people are baptised.
Acts 2: 38, First REPENT, Second, Then you can be baptised, I'm glad you agree with that, So why say baptism remits sins??.
PLEASE NOTE, Rom 3: 5 DOESN'T say Jesus blood was ONLY for past sins.. DOES IT, You made that lie up.
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1 Jn 1: 7 says Jesus blood cleanses from ALL sins,
The TRUE early Christians DIDN'T baptise infants, That is another catholic lie, The early catholics might have done, But they are not Christians.
Infant baptism DOES NOT cleanses sins or make infants children of God, You won't find scriptures for that eroneous teaching.
Paul never says anything about sprinkling water on infants.
Baptism DID NOT replace circumcision, The rebirth replaced it, It is now the circumcision of the heart, Rom 2: 29. Col 2: 11--12.
The "Buried with Christ in baptsim", In Col 2: 11--12, Isn't talking about water baptism, As water baptism is only an outward sign of an ALREADY in ward experience of dying to self and rising with Christ.
You quote [Or I should say, Mis-quote] the Bible yet you don't believe it, Or even know it.
Peter knew baptism DIDN'T SAVE, Because he was baptised and he wasn't saved,
Plus he never said baptism remits sins in Acts 2: 38, If you knew the Greek, You would know there are Numbers, Subjects and persons, And they all have to agree in order to build a doctrine.. And in Acts 2: 38.,
"Repent ye", And "Ye shall recieve the gift of the Holy Ghost", Both agree in number and person.
But, "Be baptised everyone of you", DOES NOT agree with, Repent and the recieving of the Holy Ghost.
So Peter could not have said,be baptised for the remission of sins, Because one can only receive the Holy Ghost when their sins have been remited.
Plus, It either means, Repent for the remission of sins, Which rules out baptism, Or, Be baptised for the remision of sins, Which rules out Repentance, And everyone know we have to repent to have our sins remited. Lk 24: 47.
Selene said:
I gave scripture showing that it was for PAST sins that He died for. He did not die for present or future sins. If He died for present and future sins, then there would be no need for repentance. Therefore, repentance is important for your salvation. You become sanctified through the offering of the body of Christ AFTER you repent of your sins. Do not take Hebrews 10:10 out of context. Chapter 10 of Hebrews continues to tell you that if you deliberately sin, you can be condemned to Hell (See Hebrews 10:26-27).
No, You mis-quoted Rom 3: 25, GET IT RIGHT, As it doesn't say Jesus ONLY shed His blood and died for past sins..DOES IT??
NO. You made that lie up.