Christ as the firstborn

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Insight

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I made the mistake of reading this and true to my pitiful brain it made me forget what I was going to tell you which I think you may have never before considered. It will come to me again with me having patience with myself. :lol:


Anyway, there is much you are overlooking. And I am trying desperately to be as least offensive as possible in helping you to see it. I mean in no way to offend you and I certainly am not at all accusing you of ignorance. I also know that you are without doubt sincere in your heart, a very endearing quality which Yahweh is very fond of.

Slow down and ponder this thought for a short as to what you said here: "In "life" he was "dead" already."

John 5:26 "For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;" (already given life in himself)

John 10:17 "Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again."

John 10:11 "I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd giveth his life for the sheep."

John 6:48 "I am that bread of life."

John 6:51 "I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world."

John 6:54 "Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day."

An admirable quality is your ability to take this discussion to the Spiritual, however I am speaking at the natural.

For instance all those verses present to us the spiritual life within the Lord.

Can you explain the precise moment these above verses were fulfilled in Jesus?

Short answer is all that is required.

Also Vengle picking up on your below comment.

Gal 5:24 means we rise in that body with him because it did not deserve death and so was resurrected of the Father. We must let go of our flesh to take to us his.

This is true...but is that all the verse is teaching us?

Was Gal 5:24 a daily occurrence leading to an actual putting to death of his physical nature?

Spiritually speaking was not the Lord puting his nature, lusts, passions to death everyday?
 

Vengle

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Well,it is so far not coming back to me. But think about this as related to my post #480:

Jesus had to overcome our sin which was in us so that we do it, not in him so that he had to obey sin's desires as we.

We beat him up with our sin. He bore the punishment our sin inflicted unjustly upon him. That thus condemned the sin that is figuratively in our flesh in the sense that we are motivated by the missed mark of pure knowledge and wisdom to have our own form of righteousness which would think itself right to kill him.

An admirable quality is your ability to take this discussion to the Spiritual, however I am speaking at the natural.

For instance all those verses present to us the spiritual life within the Lord.

Can you explain the precise moment these above verses were fulfilled in Jesus?

Short answer is all that is required.

Also Vengle picking up on your below comment.



This is true...but is that all the verse is teaching us?

Was Gal 5:24 a daily occurrence leading to an actual putting to death of his physical nature?

Spiritually speaking was not the Lord puting his nature, lusts, passions to death everyday?

For Christ that merely meant that he did not live for a separate desire of his flesh which would alienate him from his Father's spirit.

That would remain true even if he were perfect like the first Adam before Adam sinned.

And it is a perfect example for us to copy.
 

Insight

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Well,it is so far not coming back to me. But think about this as related to my post #480:

Jesus had to overcome our sin which was in us so that we do it, not in him so that he had to obey sin's desires as we.

Vengle

I am going to break for the evening. I think it best we consider the posts that are many :) and return with a fresh heart and mind in the morning.

I do enjoy discussing these precious and very personal matters with you.

God bless

Insight
 

Insight

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While I am off to bed you may like to consider this verse once more.

Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people's: for this he did once, when he offered up himself. (Hebrews 7:27)
 

veteran

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Explain how this is salvation by works Veteran.

What part of Jesus sacrifice was attributed to the Law and not fulfilling of it?

Waiting...

Veteran,

Israel's state of uncleanness is significant as it was the Lords (not moral sin) in his sacrifice to put away the law of sin and death within his own offering.

Don’t you know that sin comes from the uncleanness of flesh (see Mark 7:18,19,20,21,22,23), being the outcome of its lusts, teaching the need to "crucify the flesh with the affections and lusts thereof (Gal. 5:24).

Jesus in the age to come, will be bought to understand its relationship with the death of the Lord. This will graphically be brought home to the nation, and the need of atonement will be made evident. The prophet declares: "In that day there shall be a fountain opened...for sin and for uncleanness" (Zech. 13:1).


I think you need to take your Orthodox Phariseeic Judaism elsewhere. This is a Christian form, not a forum to try and support the corruptions among Judah that came out of their 70 years Babylon captivity.

For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath Jesus appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself. (Hebrews 9:26)

Notice how the destroying of sin’s power relates to his own body (himself) – he becomes a representative and NOT a substitution sacrifice!

Many Christians believe the God-man died instead of us, and not on behalf of us, representing our nature and overcoming its power in a self sacrifice.

Representing us Jesus becomes our example of how we ought to crucify the flesh

Substitution teaches a debt is paid and settled with no need to put flesh to death.

Insight


All that is in direct denial that God could come in the flesh as Jesus Christ and offer Himself as the Perfect Sacrifice for one and all time. It goes directly against what Apostle Paul said with Jesus being our 'Passover' sacrificed for us (1 Cor.5). News flash: for Apostle Paul to call Christ Jesus 'our Passover', that DEFINITELY means he recognized Christ Jesus' Sacrifice as covering us.

The idea you're pushing is that we EACH must do exactly what Jesus did in order to be saved. THAT is the idea that we each must save ourselves, instead of us being saved through The Blood of Jesus Christ as The Perfect Sacrifice for one and all time.

And the origin of such ideas that we each must save ourselves is what the pagan mysteries and Gnosticism were all about.
 

Vengle

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Can we rightly read into this following passage of scripture that Jesus had to make an offering once for all times for his own sin?

Hebrews 7:27 “Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people's: for this he did once, when he offered up himself.”

The contrast here is that a priest with infirmities of his own flesh would have to do this over and over.
Hebrews 7:28a “For the law maketh men high priests which have infirmity; ...”
Such a priest could not sacrifice himself. His sacrifice of himself would have no lasting value, if any at all.

What is happening here is that we are making the mistake of thinking that it is the literal flesh that is something when in fact it is nothing but the shell which houses who we really are.

Blemishes on our flesh are merely indicative of what our inner man is. That is why whatever we are on the inside will become visible on our outside (especially in terms of our conduct). Thus we may see a very attractive woman, but then if we would see her picking her nose and eating her own buggers or like a dog licking up her own vomit then suddenly she does not appear so attractive. Ekes!!!

Therefore, the principle behind 1 Peter 3:4 is what we need to put more into play to help us understand the relationship of the figurative flesh verses our inner man who is the spirit of who we really are as a person. We need to see that our bodies of flesh are mere superficial indicators of our true spiritual condition; nothing more and nothing less.

It is always, I repeat, it is always the inner man that we are talking about and must deal with. It is always the principle which I have posted numerous times now, as follows:
Matthew 23:26 “Thou blind Pharisee, cleanse first that which is within the cup and platter, that the outside of them may be clean also.”

When we are full of dead man’s bones within the best we achieve on the outside is a whitewashing that is quickly seen to be what it is because it is so subject to decay by the elements of life which attack it.


Insight, do you see that you have your logic reversed when you said this (as shown in Veteran's posted quote by you)?

"Don’t you know that sin comes from the uncleanness of flesh (see Mark 7:18,19,20,21,22,23),"

The very scriptures you gave show it to be the other way around. You may have meant it the other way around. I do that sometimes with my thoughts. I call it dyslectic thoughts. :lol:

I hope you are grasping that in reality it is always a spiritual ailment in us. It is not our literal flesh. This sin's flesh is just a pictorially used flesh to demonstrate the sick spirit as apposed to the healthy spirit we need. And what it boils down to is that God is making sure we care enough to cooperate with him in his helping us to heal spiritually before he will unleash unlimited blessings on us to heal us physically. In other words he is not into rewarding us for being a vessel which harbors the spirit of sin.
 

Vengle

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You asked: “Was Gal 5:24 a daily occurrence leading to an actual putting to death of his physical nature? And spiritually speaking was not the Lord putting his nature, lusts, and passions to death every day?”


No. He never let a sin become enlivened in him in the first place. And this sin nature idea is not exactly scriptural. You won’t find the expression “sin nature” in the Bible. Sin is a defect of our spirit having turned its attention selfishly toward self. Then our spirit becomes sickly and weak because it is not focused undivided toward God and and cannot draw the strength it needs from His spirit.

It was not a so-called nature that was put to death. It was his complete life and everything connected to it.

John 10:11 "I am the good shepherd: the good shepherd giveth his life for the sheep."

John 10:17 "Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again."



__________________________________________________________________


Galatians 5:24 “And they that are Christ's have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts.”

Gal. 5:24 is not speaking about what Christ did but is speaking about what we must do.

The picture you are trying to create is unnecessary because it matters not whether Christ was wearing our sinful flesh. Whether he was perfect or whether his flesh bore our sin in a literal way, he would have done the same thing. He would have walked by spirit out of whole souled love for his Father so as to follow his Father’s spirit instead of looking inward to selfish desires.

As I pointed out in other posts, even perfect spirit bodied creatures such as Lucifer can allow selfishness to enter their thinking. That would not require having a literal fallen flesh. (Ezekiel 28:17)



The problem with all Bible based theories is that they are all based in a certain amount of truth. They could not be confusing if they were not. Our task is to carefully sort between the truth and the falsehoods to purify what we believe. But even more importantly, none of that would benefit us if we failed to apply what we learn to how we live our daily lives.
 

Insight

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Can we rightly read into this following passage of scripture that Jesus had to make an offering once for all times for his own sin?

Hebrews 7:27 “Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people's: for this he did once, when he offered up himself.”


So you apply the once to only half the verse?


The contrast here is that a priest with infirmities of his own flesh would have to do this over and over.


Exactly now read Heb 5:2KJV and explain to me Jesus’ weakness or infirmities in the AV


Hebrews 7:28a “For the law maketh men high priests which have infirmity; ...”

Such a priest could not sacrifice himself. His sacrifice of himself would have no lasting value, if any at all.


You are quoting scriptures that have the answer to his nature.


What is happening here is that we are making the mistake of thinking that it is the literal flesh that is something when in fact it is nothing but the shell which houses who we really are.


You now move away from Jesus Christ and his physical nature. The shell you refer to is the same shell that was changed still bearing the marks of nails.


You need to think this through some more.


Blemishes on our flesh are merely indicative of what our inner man is. That is why whatever we are on the inside will become visible on our outside (especially in terms of our conduct). Thus we may see a very attractive woman, but then if we would see her picking her nose and eating her own buggers or like a dog licking up her own vomit then suddenly she does not appear so attractive. Ekes!!!


Now you have taken us back to the flesh and Gal 5:24.


We need to discuss Romans 8 in greater detail to explain the difference between flesh and spirit.


Therefore, the principle behind 1 Peter 3:4 is what we need to put more into play to help us understand the relationship of the figurative flesh verses our inner man who is the spirit of who we really are as a person. We need to see that our bodies of flesh are mere superficial indicators of our true spiritual condition; nothing more and nothing less.


The flesh is not figurative it’s real and within its members is a law working.


You need to address the law working in his physical members.


Like I said – if Jesus lived to be an older man (like yourself :) ) he would eventually have died.


Now the question is how and why he would have died?


Answer this question and you will understand in part what Yahweh crucified His Son



It is always, I repeat, it is always the inner man that we are talking about and must deal with.


No, the inner man is the Spirit-Word working to overcome the propensities of our flesh nature as per Gal 5:24. Jesus can ask this of you Vengle because he is the ultimate example of crucifying his own carnal fleshly will and replacing it with the Spirit Will.


It is always the principle which I have posted numerous times now, as follows:
Matthew 23:26 “Thou blind Pharisee, cleanse first that which is within the cup and platter, that the outside of them may be clean also.”


The flesh cannot be cleansed Vengle for even Jesus was washed in his own blood – the washing of the word upon his nature could never change that nature, hence that nature must first be put to death – grave – resurrection (Gal 5:24). The atoning process by the blood is to affect a change of nature by removing the law of sin and death within its members.


When we are full of dead man’s bones within the best we achieve on the outside is a whitewashing that is quickly seen to be what it is because it is so subject to decay by the elements of life which attack it.


This is spoken of the Pharisees because they allowed their flesh nature to determine their walk. They could not listen to the Spirit Word because vipers do not have ears. If the Word of God cannot enter the mind and do its circumcising of the fleshly lusts, then we allow sin to reign in our mortal bodies obeying its lusts, we sin and then die Rom 6:23.


I could provide the verse links but I am sure you already know them!


Insight, do you see that you have your logic reversed when you said this (as shown in Veteran's posted quote
by you)?


"Don’t you know that sin comes from the uncleanness of flesh (see Mark 7:18,19,20,21,22,23),"


The very scriptures you gave show it to be the other way around. You may have meant it the other way around. I do that sometimes with my thoughts. I call it dyslectic thoughts.


I hope you are grasping that in reality it is always a spiritual ailment in us. It is not our literal flesh.


Jesus in Mark 7 is showing you two things.

  1. The actual fallen flesh nature (corrupting and perishing) has a bias toward sin, because of the law of sin which leads to death in its physical members. The Law of sin which leads to death makes the nature unclean, because that nature is held under its dominion. (See how the Law of Moses treated death and our association with it)
  1. When the mind is governed by the flesh and its heed to 1 John 2:16 the mind becomes carnal or animal (you may spiritualise this mind as being fleshly, evil, self-pleasing etc.) In other words the intellect of the mind gives voice to its passions and lusts. (like your beautiful woman example above)


The desire starts from the feelings of the flesh nature and then moves into the mind where sin can be conceived; this could be followed through by an immoral action.


Let me ask you a question of Mark 7:18,19,20,21,22,23 - I need you to understand the above twofold understanding of human nature.


Jesus specifically states the following:


[sup]15[/sup]There is nothing from without a man, that entering into him can defile him: but the things which come out of him, those are they that defile the man.

Jesus is drawing your attention to your human nature the same nature he possessed.

[sup]16[/sup]If any man have ears to hear, let him hear.

He wants us to listen to him very carefully.

[sup]17[/sup]And when he was entered into the house from the people, his disciples asked him concerning the parable.

We ask him also!

[sup]18[/sup]And he saith unto them, Are ye so without understanding also? Do ye not perceive, that whatsoever thing from without entereth into the man, it cannot defile him;

Jesus is suggesting that temptation and defilement cannot be external to our nature and draws us to the physical aspect of eating food.

[sup]19[/sup]Because it entereth not into his heart (mind), but into the belly, and goeth out into the draught, purging all meats?

See what Jesus does Vengle?

He is taking you to where the problem of sin is found – in the Mind of Man is the place of sin.

[sup]20[/sup]And he said, That which cometh out of the man, that defileth the man.

So connecting the heart and what comes out of the heart is the location of defilement.

[sup]21[/sup]For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed evil thoughts, adulteries, fornications, murders,

Ok, now we have come to fallen nature and its many desires; the flesh and its propensities to think evil thoughts as per Gen 6:5 is in direct reference to the flesh, actual flesh – not a shell as one cannot separate the flesh, from the its mind, they are one in the same.

Now here is the problem Vengle. Jesus presents you with a subtle teaching which few Christians understand.

Jesus has up until now ONLY been speaking about the mind of man and how this mind (or thinking) is the place of defilement.

Why does Jesus go on to only list actions! Why actions of the flesh?

[sup]22[/sup]Thefts, covetousness, wickedness, deceit, lasciviousness, an evil eye, blasphemy, pride, foolishness:

A theft in the flesh starts where?

If one coverts something like a woman where does this action originate?
All of these i.e. wickedness, deceit, lasciviousness, an evil eye, blasphemy, pride, foolishness are revealed in the manifestation of flesh and Jesus states they begin in the mind and the move to action behaviour etc.

[sup]23[/sup]All these evil things come from within, and defile the man.

Jesus concludes for use that all of this “things” come from with our nature and originate from the propensities of the flesh formed into a thought and eventuate, if not crucified (Gal 5:24) in sin and death.


Jesus never allowed his nature and its propensities to move from thought to action.


Hence we are told by Paul that while Jesus was in sin’s flesh (that is to say where sin hold flesh captive by the dominion of death working in its members) he put to death in himself the carnal mind never allowing it to voice its will.


But were these desires latent in the body of Jesus


Absolutely else he overcame nothing and his flesh would be like that of his nature post resurrection.


But this is not so!


Jesus was tempted (Heb 4:15) in every way possible and some but did sin find occasion in the Mind of Christ?


No it didn’t, and as such he was one with his Father in mind but in body he was subject to death, yes Vengle even the death of the cross.


This sin's flesh is just a pictorially used flesh to demonstrate the sick spirit as opposed to the healthy spirit we need.


You use the phrase sick spirit but in actual fact it is the carnal mind allowing sin to reign in our mortal bodies in thought and in action.


And what it boils down to is that God is making sure we care enough to cooperate with him in his helping us to heal spiritually


No Vengle – you still do not understand the flesh.


The flesh can NEVER be fixed, it can never be healed ! Impossible, absolutely evil, inherently vile and only good for death!


You must at all costs come to this understanding else you will never understand the work of Yahweh in the
son.


It is time for us now to consider Romans 8 – only there will you see the truth.


If you don’t mind Vengle, would you mind not responding (to everything) to this post though, I understand you will want too?


Mark 7 “may” still not be understood fully, so we need to discuss Romans 8 in much greater detail.


I will wait for acknowledgement before we begin Romans 8


In the Masters service


Insight
 

Vengle

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I moved only to what you asked about.

And what I said is you are imagining things are there that are not.

You say I applied "once for all time" to only half the verse. I say I applied it to what the context shows it applies to instead of letting my imagination dictate it. But you are being defensive instead of reasoning on what I said. That I am not willing to tolerate to wrestle with in you or anyone. It leads only to useless arguing.
 

Insight

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I moved only to what you asked about.

And what I said is you are imagining things are there that are not.

You say I applied "once for all time" to only half the verse. I say I applied it to what the context shows it applies to instead of letting my imagination dictate it. But you are being defensive instead of reasoning on what I said. That I am not willing to tolerate to wrestle with in you or anyone. It leads only to useless arguing.

Vengle, I highlighted that your answer did not take into consideration the High Priest's nature and his offering - I was simply providing the balance to Heb 7:27.

I am not wrestling or arguing just a passionate discussion we might say :)

Vengle

Are you able to provide your understanding of these verses

[sup]5[/sup]For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit.

[sup]6[/sup]For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace.

[sup]7[/sup]Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.

[sup]8[/sup]So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.

Insight
 

Vengle

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Hebrews 7:27 “Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people's: for this he did once, when he offered up himself.”

The contrast here is that a priest with infirmities of his own flesh would have to do this over and over.
Hebrews 7:28a “For the law maketh men high priests which have infirmity; ...”
Such a priest could not sacrifice himself. His sacrifice of himself would have no lasting value, if any at all.


Look carefully at what I have already posted here:

Now tell me how you cannot see that this supplies an obvious contrast showing that whereas “the law maketh men high priests which have infirmity”, Jesus was not appointed having any infirmity of his own?

If you are unwilling to see that then you are only insisting on seeing it your own way and there is then no point in me struggling to help you.
 

Insight

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Look carefully at what I have already posted here:

Now tell me how you cannot see that this supplies an obvious contrast showing that whereas “the law maketh men high priests which have infirmity”, Jesus was not appointed having any infirmity of his own?

If you are unwilling to see that then you are only insisting on seeing it your own way and there is then no point in me struggling to help you.

Hi Vengle,

Still enjoying our discussion. :)

Heb 7:27 “Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people's: for this he did once, when he offered up himself.”

The contrast here is that a priest with infirmities of his own flesh would have to do this over and over.

This is true if the High Priest had personal moral sins of his own!

Heb 7:28 “For the law maketh men high priests which have infirmity; ...”

Such a priest could not sacrifice himself.

You have quoted the whole purpose of Jesus sacrifice and why he was raised up in the weakness of sin's flesh so that God could truimph over the power of death, which is sin. (Heb 2:14,15 Key verses)

You say "he didnt have infirmity" whereas, Paul states otherwise.

Remember Vengle - Heb 5 is all about Jesus' qualification as High Priest.

[sup]1[/sup] For every high priest taken from among men is appointed for men in things pertaining to God, that he may offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins. Heb 5:1

Jesus qualified becuase he was taken from among man (Gal 4:4) and appointed for the purpose (1 Tim 2:5) medaiting between God and Man.

[sup]2[/sup] Jesus can have compassion on those who are ignorant and going astray, since he himself is also subject to weakness (or infirmities). Heb 5:2

So Paul goes on to explain as a faithful High Priest (although beset with his own infirmities) is still able to offer both for himself and the people...

[sup]3[/sup] Because of this Jesus is required as for the people, so also for himself, to offer sacrifices for sins. [sup]4[/sup] And no man takes this honor to himself, but he who is called by God, just as Aaron was. Heb 5:3

However you stated...

His sacrifice of himself would have no lasting value, if any at all.

We find the contrary is actually true.

If you remove from Jesus his "beset with infirmities", Jesus can no longer "have compassion on those who are ignorant and going astray". For his compassion comes from being like us in every way! Jesus bore the exact same nature as you although, overcoming that nature and its desires, he is still able to sympathise with those he came to represent.

Further to this - If Yahweh desired to remove condemned nature in His Son (Rom 8:3) how could he do this if His Son did not possess that same nature as the rest of his brothers (Heb 2:17) ?

[sup]17[/sup]Therefore Jesus had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.

So once again Paul teaches us that Jesus could not propitiate for the people Jesus had to be like his brethren in every respect.

These things have to rest on you for a while and its worth while standing back and taking a macro view of Gods plan with the earth rather than zooming in too close.

Insight
 

Insight

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[sup]3[/sup] Because of this Jesus is required as for the people, so also for himself, to offer sacrifices for sins. [sup]4[/sup] And no man takes this honor to himself, but he who is called by God, just as Aaron was...

The red text may help???

The regular high priest, having committed his own sins, would need to offer sacrifice for those sins, as well as those of others (cp Heb 9:7; Lev 16:6).

It is true that Jesus was "without sin" :) in the personal sense (Heb 4:15).

Yet nevertheless, he possessed a mortal, sin-prone, or sinful nature (Heb 2:14,15) -- and the removal of this nature required his perfect and obedient life and sacrifice.

In this sense, then, Jesus also had his own "sin" for which to offer.
 

Vengle

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Somewhere inside you this theory of yours is based upon a key miss-understanding.

I suspect that it begins with the following chapter of Isaiah:

Isaiah 53:1 ¶Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?
2 For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground: he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him.
3 He is despised and rejected of men; a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief: and we hid as it were our faces from him; he was despised, and we esteemed him not.
4 ¶Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.
5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.
6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
7 He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth.
8 He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken.
9 And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth.
10 ¶Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.
11 He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.
12 Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.


Meditate on that chapter.

As you meditate on that chapter remember that God set before Israel (based upon their faithfulness to Him) the choice of between blessing and malediction.

It was the normal course that God would bless faithfulness and give His faithful rest from their enemies. He would prosper them both materially and spiritually and cause peace to exist between they and all who were around them. And all He asked in return was that they faithfully listen to Him to obey Him.

Yet Jesus who was completely faithful to Him He was "pleased" to bruise. (Isaiah 53:10; Genesis 3:15)

Your answers are all there in that chapter if you are willing to lay down this idea that you have used your own sweat to arrive at so that you can see those answers.
 

Insight

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Somewhere inside you this theory of yours is based upon a key miss-understanding.

I suspect that it begins with the following chapter of Isaiah:

Isaiah 53:1 ¶Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?
2 For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground: he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him.
3 He is despised and rejected of men; a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief: and we hid as it were our faces from him; he was despised, and we esteemed him not.
4 ¶Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.
5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.
6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
7 He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth.
8 He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken.
9 And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth.
10 ¶Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.
11 He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.
12 Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.


Meditate on that chapter.

As you meditate on that chapter remember that God set before Israel (based upon their faithfulness to Him) the choice of between blessing and malediction.

It was the normal course that God would bless faithfulness and give His faithful rest from their enemies. He would prosper them both materially and spiritually and cause peace to exist between they and all who were around them. And all He asked in return was that they faithfully listen to Him to obey Him.

Yet Jesus who was completely faithful to Him He was "pleased" to bruise. (Isaiah 53:10; Genesis 3:15)

Your answers are all there in that chapter if you are willing to lay down this idea that you have used your own sweat to arrive at so that you can see those answers.

Read #494 if you missed the changes?
 

Insight

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[sup]3[/sup] Because of this Jesus is required as for the people, so also for himself, to offer sacrifices for sins. [sup]4[/sup] And no man takes this honor to himself, but he who is called by God, just as Aaron was...

The red text may help???

The regular high priest, having committed his own sins, would need to offer sacrifice for those sins, as well as those of others (cp Heb 9:7; Lev 16:6).

It is true that Jesus was "without sin" :) in the personal sense (Heb 4:15).

Yet nevertheless, he possessed a mortal, sin-prone, or sinful nature (Heb 2:14,15) -- and the removal of this nature required his perfect and obedient life and sacrifice.

In this sense, then, Jesus also had his own "sin" for which to offer.

Now compare your quote below from Isa...

12 Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his body unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.

How?

Answer Heb 2:14,15 Heb 5:1,2,3 Heb 7:27 and so on...

Vengle...the intercessions of Isa 53 should point us to the letter to the Hebrews: Heb 4:15,16; 5:1,2,3; 7:26
 

Vengle

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Sep 22, 2011
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[sup]3[/sup] Because of this Jesus is required as for the people, so also for himself, to offer sacrifices for sins. [sup]4[/sup] And no man takes this honor to himself, but he who is called by God, just as Aaron was...

The red text may help???

The regular high priest, having committed his own sins, would need to offer sacrifice for those sins, as well as those of others (cp Heb 9:7; Lev 16:6).

It is true that Jesus was "without sin" :) in the personal sense (Heb 4:15).

Yet nevertheless, he possessed a mortal, sin-prone, or sinful nature (Heb 2:14,15) -- and the removal of this nature required his perfect and obedient life and sacrifice.

In this sense, then, Jesus also had his own "sin" for which to offer.

You are failing the context to apply "as for the people, so also for himself" as though it means Jesus.

It means the Levitical priests specified in verse one. It is talking of "he" in a general sense referring to that Levitical priesthood. You are confusing what you are being told about the Levitical Priesthood which began in Aaron. It is not to be confused with Jesus' priesthood. You are wrong to discount Hebrews 7:28 on that basis as those priesthoods have similarities and differences.

Jesus is not a priest of that order. The Levitical priesthood was a lower order of priests and only a temporary arrangement.

Now compare your quote below from Isa...

12 Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his body unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.

How?

Answer Heb 2:14,15 Heb 5:1,2,3 Heb 7:27 and so on...

Vengle...the intercessions of Isa 53 should point us to the letter to the Hebrews: Heb 4:15,16; 5:1,2,3; 7:26

You are being a fool and not even trying to see.

Who really numbered him with the transgressors? Was it not the people that placed him among those transgressors? Did Christ resist them?

Yahweh allowed it but Yahweh was well pleased with His Son if you believe the word spoken from heaven at Jesus' baptism.
 

Insight

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You are failing the context to apply "as for the people, so also for himself" as though it means Jesus.

It means the Levitical priests specified in verse one. It is talking of "he" in a general sense referring to that Levitical priesthood. You are confusing what you are being told about the Levitical Priesthood which began in Aaron. It is not to be confused with Jesus' priesthood. You are wrong to discount Hebrews 7:28 on that basis as those priesthoods have similarities and differences.

Jesus is not a priest of that order. The Levitical priesthood was a lower order of priests and only a temporary arrangement.

Paul is showing forth the completed work in Christ

[sup]5[/sup]So also Christ glorified not himself....Heb 5:5

You have no Scriptural precedent to deny the previous 4 verses to not apply to Christ. Should we do so we would compromise our High Priest and his appointed function.

Jesus is the one who died for us and has been raised from the dead for our justification (Rom 4:25). As a high priest at the right hand of God in heaven, he intercedes for us. The one who, while in the flesh, experienced every weakness and sorrow, yet without sinning (Heb 4:15,16), is able now to save "to the uttermost" those who come to God through him, since he lives always (Heb 7:25,26). All his life fitted him expressly for this task, to be merciful and sympathetic of us his brethren.

Therefore, not breaking the type of Aaron..he fufilled it in every way.

[sup]3[/sup] Because of this Jesus is required as for the people, so also for himself, to offer sacrifices for sins. [sup]4[/sup] And no man takes this honor to himself, but he who is called by God, just as Aaron was..

And maybe Vengle you will note Paul stresses CHRIST...“just as Aaron” Heb 5:3



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