Aunty Jane
Well-Known Member
Excellent points! It shows us that calling someone “el”, “ĕlōhîm” or “theos” is not calling them “God” (with a capital “G”) There are many meanings to those words dictated by context.
Calling human judges in Israel “ĕlōhîm” (plural) indicated their God given authority to represent him to his nation.…judging the people as his holy spirit instructed.
And as indicted by Strong’s definition, we can see that many definitions apply to both Hebrew and Greek words meaning “god”. (Basically meaning “a divine mighty one”)
So what did Jesus means in John 10:31-36?
Read in Greek we can see something interesting…..the use of the definite article to indicate who was Yahweh and who was not…..
”The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?” The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God. (theos) Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I said you are gods’ (theos)? If he called them gods, (theos) to whom the word of God (ho theos, YAHWEH) came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’ (ho theos, YAHWEH)?” (NASB)
The Jews did not accuse Jesus of being Yahweh, (ho theos) but of being his divine son. (theos) No Jew would have accepted that their Messiah was God incarnate.
Jesus is never once called “ho theos” in any Scripture….only his Father is given that title in place of his name (YAHWEH) so Jesus is saying that others called “gods” are not Yahweh but are his representatives. This includes Jesus himself who carried the title “theos” but not “ho theos”.
