Did Jesus tell the Pharisees that they were gods? - John 10:34

[Aunty Jane]

Strong's concordance has the meaning of אֱלֹהִים as:

1. (plural)
   1. rulers, judges
   2. divine ones
   3. angels
   4. gods
2. (plural intensive - singular meaning)
   1. god, goddess
   2. godlike one
   3. works or special possessions of God
   4. the (true) God
   5. God

Ancient Hebrew only has about 8000 words, so most words have several meanings.

Excellent points! It shows us that calling someone “el”, “ĕlōhîm” or “theos” is not calling them “God” (with a capital “G”) There are many meanings to those words dictated by context.

Calling human judges in Israel “ĕlōhîm” (plural) indicated their God given authority to represent him to his nation.…judging the people as his holy spirit instructed.

And as indicted by Strong’s definition, we can see that many definitions apply to both Hebrew and Greek words meaning “god”. (Basically meaning “a divine mighty one”)

So what did Jesus means in John 10:31-36?

Read in Greek we can see something interesting…..the use of the definite article to indicate who was Yahweh and who was not…..

”The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?” The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God. (theos) Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I said you are gods’ (theos)? If he called them gods, (theos) to whom the word of God (ho theos, YAHWEH) came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’ (ho theos, YAHWEH)?” (NASB)

The Jews did not accuse Jesus of being Yahweh, (ho theos) but of being his divine son. (theos) No Jew would have accepted that their Messiah was God incarnate.

Jesus is never once called “ho theos” in any Scripture….only his Father is given that title in place of his name (YAHWEH) so Jesus is saying that others called “gods” are not Yahweh but are his representatives. This includes Jesus himself who carried the title “theos” but not “ho theos”.

 

[Runningman]

Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’[c]? - John 10:34 NIV

This interesting interchange between Jesus and his Jewish opponents (Pharisees?) leaves me wondering
what Jesus was trying to say about his Jewish opponents, or anyone for that matter. Seems as though Jesus answered their
blasphemy charge by saying they too were gods (sons of God), quoting Psalm 82:6 to make his point. (quoted below)

What do you make of this?
Here's the context of John 10:34

John 10:22-39 NIV
Then came the Festival of Dedication[a] at Jerusalem. It was winter,
23 and Jesus was in the temple courts walking in Solomon’s Colonnade.
24 The Jews who were there gathered around him, saying,
“How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Messiah, tell us plainly.”
25 Jesus answered, “I did tell you, but you do not believe.
The works I do in my Father’s name testify about me,
26 but you do not believe because you are not my sheep.
27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me.
28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish;
no one will snatch them out of my hand.
29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all[b];
no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand.
30 I and the Father are one.”
31 Again his Jewish opponents picked up stones to stone him,
32 but Jesus said to them,
“I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?”
33 “We are not stoning you for any good work,”
they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”
34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’[c]?
35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside—
36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world?
Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’?
37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father.
38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works,
that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.”
39 Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.

Psalm 82:6 NIV
“I said, ‘You are “gods”;
you are all sons of the Most High.’


/ @Phil .

Yes, Jesus did call them gods. I believe Jesus was trying to disarm the situation because it could have potentially escalated into another incident that ended with Jesus almost getting stoned. His point was, contrary to their accusations that Jesus had claimed to be God, which is something he never said, that they are all sons of God just like Jesus and that is the way he was saying he is a son of The God. Therefore, their blasphemy accusations were false. This passage is a round-about way in which Jesus denying being the Most High, which is another title Jesus was never called in the Bible.

 

[Runningman]

Excellent points! It shows us that calling someone “el”, “ĕlōhîm” or “theos” is not calling them “God” (with a capital “G”) There are many meanings to those words dictated by context.

Calling human judges in Israel “ĕlōhîm” (plural) indicated their God given authority to represent him to his nation.…judging the people as his holy spirit instructed.

And as indicted by Strong’s definition, we can see that many definitions apply to both Hebrew and Greek words meaning “god”. (Basically meaning “a divine mighty one”)

So what did Jesus means in John 10:31-36?

Read in Greek we can see something interesting…..the use of the definite article to indicate who was Yahweh and who was not…..

”The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?” The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God. (theos) Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I said you are gods’ (theos)? If he called them gods, (theos) to whom the word of God (ho theos, YAHWEH) came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’ (ho theos, YAHWEH)?” (NASB)

The Jews did not accuse Jesus of being Yahweh, (ho theos) but of being his divine son. (theos) No Jew would have accepted that their Messiah was God incarnate.

Jesus is never once called “ho theos” in any Scripture….only his Father is given that title in place of his name (YAHWEH) so Jesus is saying that others called “gods” are not Yahweh but are his representatives. This includes Jesus himself who carried the title “theos” but not “ho theos”.

Correct me if I am wrong, but the way the wording of the Greek in John 10:36 reads to me is that Jesus was claiming to be [a] son of The God. Where I got that is there doesn't seem to be any definite article attached to son, but there is a definite article attached to God. I think Jesus was basically saying, he's one of the sons of the Most High just like the other folks who were present.

edit: and yes "The God" in context is the Most High and certainly this is a reference to YHWH. This is strong evidence that the Father is YHWH.

 

[Mark51]

Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’[c]? - John 10:34 NIV

This interesting interchange between Jesus and his Jewish opponents (Pharisees?) leaves me wondering
what Jesus was trying to say about his Jewish opponents, or anyone for that matter. Seems as though Jesus answered their
blasphemy charge by saying they too were gods (sons of God), quoting Psalm 82:6 to make his point. (quoted below)

What do you make of this?
Here's the context of John 10:34

John 10:22-39 NIV
Then came the Festival of Dedication[a] at Jerusalem. It was winter,
23 and Jesus was in the temple courts walking in Solomon’s Colonnade.
24 The Jews who were there gathered around him, saying,
“How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Messiah, tell us plainly.”
25 Jesus answered, “I did tell you, but you do not believe.
The works I do in my Father’s name testify about me,
26 but you do not believe because you are not my sheep.
27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me.
28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish;
no one will snatch them out of my hand.
29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all[b];
no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand.
30 I and the Father are one.”
31 Again his Jewish opponents picked up stones to stone him,
32 but Jesus said to them,
“I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?”
33 “We are not stoning you for any good work,”
they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”
34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’[c]?
35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside—
36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world?
Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’?
37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father.
38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works,
that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.”
39 Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.

Psalm 82:6 NIV
“I said, ‘You are “gods”;
you are all sons of the Most High.’


/ @Phil .

Jesus quoted or made reference to Psalms 82:6 7 in which human judges, whom God condemned for not executing justice, were called “gods.” It seems to me that Jesus viewed his opposers in this same context. Also compare Exodus 4:16; 7:1.

 

[St. SteVen]

Jesus answered them,
“Is it not written in your Law,
‘I have said you are “gods”’?
- John 10:34 NIV

This interesting interchange between Jesus and his Jewish opponents (Pharisees?) leaves me wondering
what Jesus was trying to say about his Jewish opponents, or anyone for that matter. Seems as though Jesus answered their
blasphemy charge by saying they too were gods (sons of God), quoting Psalm 82:6 to make his point. (quoted below)

What do you make of this?
Here's the context of John 10:34

John 10:22-39 NIV
Then came the Festival of Dedication[a] at Jerusalem. It was winter,
23 and Jesus was in the temple courts walking in Solomon’s Colonnade.
24 The Jews who were there gathered around him, saying,
“How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Messiah, tell us plainly.”
25 Jesus answered, “I did tell you, but you do not believe.
The works I do in my Father’s name testify about me,
26 but you do not believe because you are not my sheep.
27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me.
28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish;
no one will snatch them out of my hand.
29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all[b];
no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand.
30 I and the Father are one.”
31 Again his Jewish opponents picked up stones to stone him,
32 but Jesus said to them,
“I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?”
33 “We are not stoning you for any good work,”
they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”
34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’[c]?
35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside—
36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world?
Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’?
37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father.
38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works,
that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.”
39 Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.

Psalm 82:6 NIV
“I said, ‘You are “gods”;
you are all sons of the Most High.’

[

 

[MatthewG]

gods would pertain to judging? At least in context for themselves. They were the "god" of their world. Ie - Satan.

The only way people are equal to God by merit - is they are God-made souls, however they are not God in holiness, righteousness, purity.

Also, we can't create something from nothing.

 

[MatthewG]

In their own spheres, many exalt themselves as “gods”—not in divinity, but in dominion.

They judge, rule, and shape their realities by their own standards. Satan is called “the god of this world” (2 Corinthians 4:4), not because he is divine, but because he blinds minds to the gospel of Christ.

Likewise, the Jewish leaders of Jesus’ time became gods of their own system, worshiping the Law above the Lawgiver. “You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; and it is they that bear witness about me, yet you refuse to come to me that you may have life” (John 5:39–40).

These lowercase “gods” operate with influence, but not with holiness. Their judgments serve their own image, not the image of God.

True equality with God by merit is a myth.

We are made in His image (Genesis 1:27), and our souls are God-breathed (Genesis 2:7), but we are not equal in holiness, righteousness, or purity. “There is none righteous, no, not one” (Romans 3:10). Even our most noble acts are stained: “All our righteous acts are like filthy rags” (Isaiah 64:6). We reflect, but we do not radiate. We bear His breath, but not His perfection.

And we cannot create ex nihilo—out of nothing. Only God can.

“By faith we understand that the universe was formed at God’s command, so that what is seen was not made out of what was visible” (Hebrews 11:3).

Our creativity is borrowed breath. We remix, reshape, and reframe—but we do not originate being. “Who has given to Me that I should repay him? Whatever is under the whole heaven is Mine” (Job 41:11).


So when culture says “Mick Jagger is the god of dance” or “Ozzy is the god of rock,” it’s echoing the same pattern: dominion mistaken for divinity. Influence mistaken for holiness. But there is only one true God, and He says, “I am Yahavah/LORD; that is my name! I will not yield my glory to another or my praise to idols” (Isaiah 42:8).

What is your take? Satan was the Religious Zealots of that time.

Satan offers all the kingdoms to Yeshua. (Satan was the religious Jewish Pharisees, that would have given all to him if he would have just bowed down and worshiped them.) The biblical verses that describe Satan offering Jesus the kingdoms of the world are found in Matthew 4:8-10 and Luke...

www.christianityboard.com

 

[Wick Stick]

Excellent points! It shows us that calling someone “el”, “ĕlōhîm” or “theos” is not calling them “God” (with a capital “G”) There are many meanings to those words dictated by context.

Calling human judges in Israel “ĕlōhîm” (plural) indicated their God given authority to represent him to his nation.…judging the people as his holy spirit instructed.

And as indicted by Strong’s definition, we can see that many definitions apply to both Hebrew and Greek words meaning “god”. (Basically meaning “a divine mighty one”)

In King David's day, the coronation of a king included a ceremony in which each new king was adopted by God. David's own coronation in Psalms 2 includes it:

Psalms 2:6 I set my king upon my holy hill of Zion. 7 I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou [art] my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

Elōhîm is used to refer to the kings and rulers because they are the sons of El. It's the same usage as Israel referring to all the sons of the patriarch Israel.

So what did Jesus means in John 10:31-36?

Read in Greek we can see something interesting…..the use of the definite article to indicate who was Yahweh and who was not…..

”The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?” The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God. (theos) Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I said you are gods’ (theos)? If he called them gods, (theos) to whom the word of God (ho theos, YAHWEH) came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’ (ho theos, YAHWEH)?” (NASB)

The Jews did not accuse Jesus of being Yahweh, (ho theos) but of being his divine son. (theos) No Jew would have accepted that their Messiah was God incarnate.

Jesus is never once called “ho theos” in any Scripture….only his Father is given that title in place of his name (YAHWEH) so Jesus is saying that others called “gods” are not Yahweh but are his representatives. This includes Jesus himself who carried the title “theos” but not “ho theos”.

The phrase "son of God" originally refers to EVERYONE adopted by God. It is primarily a claim to kingship, and not a claim that one is God Himself.