OR, a third option, you completely misinterpret the passage. Notice the woman speaking in 1 Corinthians is a disgrace. It's not celebrated, not encouraged. As far as Romans 16, how does that change anything at all with regard to this topic? It doesn't.
Or you missed the point....
1Co 14:26 Church Order What should you do then, brothers and sisters? When you come together, each one has a song, has a lesson, has a revelation, has a tongue, has an interpretation. Let all these things be done for the strengthening of the church. 27 If someone speaks in a tongue, it should be two, or at the most three, one after the other, and someone must interpret. 28 But if there is no interpreter, he should be silent in the church. Let him speak to himself and to God. 29 Two or three prophets should speak and the others should evaluate what is said. 30 And if someone sitting down receives a revelation, the person who is speaking should conclude. 31 For you can all prophesy one after another, so all can learn and be encouraged. 32 Indeed, the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets, 33 for God is not characterized by disorder but by peace. As in all the churches of the saints, 36 Did the word of God begin with you, or did it come to you alone? 37 If anyone considers himself a prophet or spiritual person, he should acknowledge that what I write to you is the Lord's command. 38 If someone does not recognize this, he is not recognized. 39 So then, brothers and sisters, be eager to prophesy, and do not forbid anyone from speaking in tongues. 40 And do everything in a decent and orderly manner.
You see, when you remove the verses.... the context of text flows and is not interrupted by additions.... Note many older manuscripts have 1Co 14:34-35 after verse 40?
1Co 14:34 the women should be silent in the churches, for they are not permitted to speak. Rather, let them be in submission, as in fact the law says. 35 If they want to find out about something, they should ask their husbands at home, because it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in church.
Philip Comfort in his Book New Testament Text and Translation Commentary writes....
In addition to the textual evidence cited above, it must be said that Payne (1995, 240-262) has noted that both B and it' (Old Latin Codex Fuldensis) have marginal markings or readings which suggest that their scribes knew of the textual problem pertaining to 14:34-35. In Codex Vinicanus there is a marginal umlaut by the line that contains the end of 14:33, which indicates awareness of the textual problem...
Even prior to Payne's observation about B, and 88, certain scholars were convinced that 14:34-35 was a marginal gloss that found it's way into the main text... The inclusion of 14:34-35 creates a number of exegetical concerns, the chief of which pertains to the issue of women's verbal participation in church meetings. If Paul prohibited women from speaking in church meetings, why would he have indicated in 11:5 and 13 that women who pray and prophesy must do so with their heads covered? Obviously, these women were performing these verbal functions during a church meeting (see 11:17) So why would Paul later censure their speech?
I have many many books on our Greek text .... all teach the same on this topic.... Perhaps you reformed1689 could actually do some research instead of putting down and trying to shut up the other half of the body of Christ
Peace little one,
Paul