Eternal Security

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justbyfaith

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Pushing the idea of eternal security flys in the face of faith, grace and replaces them with a transaction. It is an attempt to control God. You guys really think that on Judgment Day, Jesus is going to look at a wicked heart and then, listen to it’s owner who demands Him to honor some contract? Transactions, contract, and vacious law are all part of the false self - the true self is the part of us Jesus knows
Such promises as John 5:24, John 6:47, John 10:27-30 and Hebrews 13:5 are not given to those who would be defined as having a wicked heart. They are given to the born again believer (see the progression from Jeremiah 17:9 to Ezekiel 36:25-27 to Luke 8:15); and they are obtained by faith (2 Peter 1:3-4, Hebrews 11:33, 2 Corinthians 1:20, Romans 4:20-22).

Without faith the promises don't apply.

There is a difference between faith and presumption (see Hebrews 11:29).

Faith might be identified in Philippians 1:6 as confidence; while in Romans 11:20-22 presumption might be identified as highminded confidence.

The difference may be identified in the difference between a genuine faith arising out of humility, and, a self-esteem that arises out of a pride in you.
 

APAK

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It's right there, staring you in the face. You quoted John 1:14. Now all you have to do is BELIEVE IT.

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Who is "the only begotten of the Father"? Once again it is staring you right in the face, and you cannot see it.

No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (v 18)

Who is "the only begotten Son"?
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (John 3:16)

So the truth is staring you, and gadar, and every naysayer in the face. "The Word" (Logos) is "the only begotten Son", and the only begotten Son is the Lord Jesus Christ.

Now what I would like to see is that you respond with a positive affirmation that this is God's truth.
Not convincing in the least Enoch. Nice statements that do not address my questions. in the least. I see you do not use scripture and its interpretations that apply to the subject. Blind faith is what the Romanists started and many as you still believe in them.

Bless you,

APAK
 
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APAK

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You have to know the how and why in order to have faith in something? It is like when Jesus said to a man, Unless you see signs and wonders, you will in no wise believe.

The simple answer is that you should simply take a wild look at Luke 1:35...In the virgin birth the Holy Ghost became one with the egg in the womb of the virgin Mary...and the product therefore was fully the Son of God and fully the Son of Man...He was both 100% God and 100% Man.

God purchased His church with His own blood....Acts of the Apostles 20:28.

And if you reject this testimony by going to other translations with itching ears...well, you have to deal with the understanding that in rejecting the Deity of Christ, your only fate can be to die in your sins if you continue with that opinion or belief (John 8:24).

What I am saying is that the Deity of Christ is a doctrine that is essential to salvation...understand John 8:24 in light of the following:

In John 8:58 Jesus broke the normal grammatical usage to make a claim...and the scribes and Pharisees understood perfectly what that claim was, so that they picked up stones to stone Him for blasphemy (John 8:59, John 10:31-33).

That claim referred back to Exodus 3:14...For Jesus was claiming to be the great I AM of that scripture passage.

If He were not making a claim He would not have bothered to use improper grammar to make His point...the fact that He did and it turned out to be a true statement and not the statement of an imbecile shows me that Jesus is truly God as He claimed to be.

In some cases you might not get it if you are using certain translations other than the kjv...so I would exhort you to understand that Jesus said that the way to life is narrow and there are only a few who find it (Matthew 7:13-14, John 14:6).

The same comments I gave to Enoch goes to you as well. They are of the same vein. It does not address the crux and most probably the cornerstone of the Romanists and even those before them, their creation of the 2nd person of their, and your trinity.


Sorry NOGO. Do you really think you answered my questions at all, ..seriously! You have to know the answers because you believe in this model of Christ. Where's your tome of information and commentary of the logos as they applied it deliberately and incorrectly to Christ instead of God's own inner purpose and plans and communique etc, to mankind?

Bless you,


APAK
 

justbyfaith

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I showed you the how and why...but I guess you are going to go back on your word about changing your mind about the whole issue...as I expected. Your unbelief is not a matter of your intellect but a matter of your heart (see Hebrews 3:7-8, Hebrews 3:15, Hebrews 4:7).

To @APAK
 
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GodsGrace

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Sorry I lost track of where the original post was located.

God the Father is the Lord (see Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21).
I didn't mean to go back and do it,,,just to be careful in the future.
When snippets are posted, they sometimes change the original meaning of what was said...

Mathew 11:25 and Luke 10:21
is saying that God, Father, is the Lord, or master, of heaven and earth. It's not calling Him Lord...Jesus is Lord; Father is LORD. So it's like a title; like Jesus was to be called Emmanuel...not as a name, but as a title "God is with us".

Lord of Heaven and Earth is a title, given to God Almighty, Yahweh.
LORD is the name of God. Yahweh.

So, no I don't believe it's correct to call Yahweh Lord as you're stating and using Mathew and Luke as proof texts.

Maybe @gadar perets would like to comment on my reply?
 

GodsGrace

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I ‘see’ there are folks here having a good laugh and shouting down one individual again especially - @gadar perets .

Well I would like to challenge anyone to 'put up or shut up.'

As this subject is large and has much history, I will want to look at what several folks love to quote in ignorance – John Chapter 1.

So, to any serious takers and true believers in the word(s) of God:

Tell me how and why the Greek transliterated word ‘logos’ in John 1-2 and John 1:14 became Jesus Christ, let alone any human being?

If you can explicitly, clearly and logically answer these two questions successfully, with strict adherence to scripture, where I would be amazed, I will be the first to tell you I’ve been wrong all these years.

The Greek term ‘logos’ always means God’s inner words, messages, plans purposes etc., that are revealed to us in this world. It never means a person. God’s logos created the world and all that exists per John 1:3; executed through his own spirit. Jesus had zero input to it. Way before his time.

John 1:1-13 and 14 was deliberately misused to build a foundation for the trinity, especially the 2nd person by ignorant and pagan folks. They forced a new meaning for logos and called the human instrument and voice of God’s logos the actual logos.

Christ, the human being that possessed the power of God, became the voice and the key piece to the plan of salvation for mankind. The logos (word- God’s plan for mankind)) became human (flesh - to voice and execute this plan of God). That is why in the same verse 14 he is called ‘full/complete grace and truth.’ He carried the grace and truth of God in him and was grace for us, because he selflessly in love, atoned for our sins.

Christ became by his birth and mission to the cross and beyond the ‘word of God’ NOT THE WORD ITSELF. How can anyone believe otherwise is beyond my understanding?

(Rev 19:13) And he is dressed in a garment sprinkled with blood, and his name is called The Word of God. (NEV)

HE IS NOT THE WORD!!! He is the born son and instrument of God’s plan for mankind.

Blessing all,

APAK
I just fell upon this...
John 1:2
HE was in the beginning with God...
this might be IT was in the beginning with God, which would be referring to the word, which is an IT and not a WHO.

Verse 3,,,all things came into being by IT. God spoke WORDS and the things He spoke came into being. In IT was life...in the WORD OF GOD.

Then in verse 9 John states that the true light came into the world and enlightened every man. Is this light still an IT? No, because then in verse 10 it says that the world did not know Him and in verse 11 John states that SOMETHING came to its own. Could this still be an IT?? It sounds more like a HE.

Verse 14....the WORD became FLESH.
Does this not refer to John 1:1?

This is how I understand that the WORD OF GOD,,,His thoughts,,,His words spoken...became flesh and that flesh is Jesus who always existed as the Word.

P.S. I'm not posting in response to your "put up or shut up"...I never would shout down gadar perets. He's an incredibly knowledgeable person...whether or not one agrees with him.
 

gadar perets

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I didn't mean to go back and do it,,,just to be careful in the future.
When snippets are posted, they sometimes change the original meaning of what was said...

Mathew 11:25 and Luke 10:21
is saying that God, Father, is the Lord, or master, of heaven and earth. It's not calling Him Lord...Jesus is Lord; Father is LORD. So it's like a title; like Jesus was to be called Emmanuel...not as a name, but as a title "God is with us".

Lord of Heaven and Earth is a title, given to God Almighty, Yahweh.
LORD is the name of God. Yahweh.

So, no I don't believe it's correct to call Yahweh Lord as you're stating and using Mathew and Luke as proof texts.

Maybe @gadar perets would like to comment on my reply?
"LORD" is NOT the name of God. The Father is only called "LORD" by the faulty translations and substitutes of men. The Scriptures call the Father "YHWH". The Scriptures also call the Father "Lord" or "Master" as a translation of the Hebrew "Adon" and/or "Adonai" or of the Greek "Kurios". It is not wrong to call the Father "Lord". What is wrong is to refer to Him as "LORD" in place of the name the Holy Spirit inspired to be written, YHWH. It is also wrong to use 1 Corinthians 8:6 to prove Yeshua is YHWH because there is "one Lord". That is a false understanding of Paul's words as I showed in a previous post.
 

gadar perets

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I just fell upon this...
John 1:2
HE was in the beginning with God...
this might be IT was in the beginning with God, which would be referring to the word, which is an IT and not a WHO.

Verse 3,,,all things came into being by IT. God spoke WORDS and the things He spoke came into being. In IT was life...in the WORD OF GOD.

Then in verse 9 John states that the true light came into the world and enlightened every man. Is this light still an IT? No, because then in verse 10 it says that the world did not know Him and in verse 11 John states that SOMETHING came to its own. Could this still be an IT?? It sounds more like a HE.

Verse 14....the WORD became FLESH.
Does this not refer to John 1:1?

This is how I understand that the WORD OF GOD,,,His thoughts,,,His words spoken...became flesh and that flesh is Jesus who always existed as the Word.

P.S. I'm not posting in response to your "put up or shut up"...I never would shout down gadar perets. He's an incredibly knowledgeable person...whether or not one agrees with him.
The article found here addresses the issue of "it" or "he" in John 1:1-4 perfectly clear.
 
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GodsGrace

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"LORD" is NOT the name of God. The Father is only called "LORD" by the faulty translations and substitutes of men. The Scriptures call the Father "YHWH". The Scriptures also call the Father "Lord" or "Master" as a translation of the Hebrew "Adon" and/or "Adonai" or of the Greek "Kurios". It is not wrong to call the Father "Lord". What is wrong is to refer to Him as "LORD" in place of the name the Holy Spirit inspired to be written, YHWH. It is also wrong to use 1 Corinthians 8:6 to prove Yeshua is YHWH because there is "one Lord". That is a false understanding of Paul's words as I showed in a previous post.
I know what you mean. LORD was used where it said Yahweh...I know this.
I did mean that LORD is God's name...meaning Yahweh.

I'm a little confused about the O.T. calling Yahweh Lord if it's not meant as a title.
What does Adonai mean? And Kurios? I can't remember.

As to 1 Corinthians 8:6 ... will read it tomorrow...too tired now.
Good night. And thanks.
 

Enoch111

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I see you do not use scripture and its interpretations that apply to the subject.
Since I gave you several Scriptures all connected together, this is simply laughable! Obviously you have no intention of letting Scripture interpret Scripture.
 

Stranger

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Stranger, post: 439592, member: 7282"]No, this is very wrong. Our own righteousness is not imputed to us. It is what we have. And is as filthy rags. God's righteousness is also His. It is not imputed to Him.

Utter confusion. Your up is down and down is up. If God's righteousness is His it IS imputed to Him.


God imputes His righteousness to us, covering us.

It is imparted through abiding in Him. But it remains God's.

But it is not our righteousness, ever. Never will be. That is our guarantee of eternal life. That is why we have eternal life right now.

I wish you really understood this... We actually become His righteousness...when we abide IN Him. So then we actually take on His righteousness....IN Him. But you aren't getting this.

Just as (Rom. 5:13) says concerning sin. It is not imputed when there is no law. Though the sin was theirs, God did not impute it to them. So, though they are, God says they are not. It is the same with His righteousness. Though we are not, God says we are because He imputes His righteousness, the righteousness of Christ to us. It is not ours. It is Christ's.

Stranger

You need a dictionary before reading the bible. Otherwise you are getting things in a knot.

Friend

You need the Bible.

Stranger
 

1stCenturyLady

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Man has a "sinful nature" but sin is "transgression of the LAW" according to the actual Bible - see 1 John 3:4

Yes, since Adam sinned, man inherited his fallen nature. However, Jesus corrected this flaw. Because of Him and His Spirit, we are no longer in the flesh - the fallen nature - but in the Spirit, IF we have been given the Spirit of God. And if someone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he doesn't belong to Christ.

Sinning is no longer an option for the born again Christian. When we are baptized in the Spirit, which many are NOT, we receive a new nature, free from an appetite for willful sinning, so 1 John 3:4 is about those of the devil, not of Christ.

...it boils down to independence from the Lord.

Not sure what you are saying. A Christian is not independent from the Lord.

Indeed. Before the LAW was given at Sinai -- people were sinning no matter that it was not "written on stone".

The LAW came 430 years AFTER Abraham - that is when it was "written on stone".

Gal 3: 17 What I am saying is this: the Law, which came four hundred and thirty years later, does not invalidate a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to nullify the promise..

But God's "spoken Word" is LAW and so LAW existed BEFORE it was "written on stone"

Yes, SIN existed ever since Adam sinned, though not imputed to man until the law was given. SIN is the reason why the law was introduced to man through the Jews and Moses. It's not the law that is a problem that needs to be done away, but SIN. Jesus was manifest to take away our SIN (not the law) and in Him there is no SIN. 1 John 3:5. Thus, without SIN, there is no need for the law in an individual. It is the Spirit that is responsible for this power over SIN.

Genesis 26:3...and I will establish the oath which I swore to your father Abraham.
4 I will multiply your descendants as the stars of heaven, and will give your descendants all these lands; and by your descendants all the nations of the earth shall be blessed; 5 because Abraham obeyed Me and kept My charge, My commandments, My statutes and My laws.

Yes, Abraham lived during sin's reign. But he obeyed God's spoken commands to him, had his men circumcised, sacrificed offerings to the Lord, and believed God that he would be a father. It is interesting that though Abraham's life was well documented, there is no mention of him keeping the Sabbath, so that was not part of the commandments referred to, as you suppose. In fact, the first mention of it after creation week was to Moses in Exodus 16 regarding the gathering of manna.

No it is not. There is no text saying "the Law was not in effect until Sinai" and we all know it.

That means it was "SIN" for Cain to kill Abel "SIN is crouching at your door" Genesis 4
That means it was "SIN" For Joseph to give in to adultery "How can I commit this great SIN against God" Genesis
It would always be "SIN" to "Take God's name in vain" -- at every point in history.

Almost All Christian Scholarship admits to this existence of the LAW of God from Adam to this very day.

All pointing to AFTER Adam sinned, and BEFORE Christ died. Again, it was SIN that was the culprit, and Jesus took it away, nailing it on the cross. Sin was before the LAW, but it just wasn't imputed to us unto death until the law came into affect. Then the wages of sin became death. That is why the Ten Commandment is called the ministry of death, engraved on stone.

2 Corinthians 3: But if the ministry of death, written and engraved on stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not look steadily at the face of Moses because of the glory of his countenance, which glory was passing away, 8 how will the ministry of the Spirit not be more glorious? 9 For if the ministry of condemnation had glory, the ministry of righteousness exceeds much more in glory. 10 For even what was made glorious had no glory in this respect, because of the glory that excels. 11 For if what is passing away was glorious, what remains is much more glorious.

Galatians 3:
What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator. 20 Now a mediator does not mediate for one only, but God is one.

21 Is the law then against the promises of God? Certainly not! For if there had been a law given which could have given life, truly righteousness would have been by the law. 22 But the Scripture has confined all under sin, that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe. 23 But before faith came, we were kept under guard by the law, kept for the faith which would afterward be revealed. 24 Therefore the law was our tutor to bring us to Christ, that we might be justified by faith. 25 But after faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor.

Messianics believe that the New Covenant was an addition to the Old Covenant, and not that the old was done away with in place of the New Covenant.

This is not true. Galatians 3: Brethren, I speak in the manner of men: Though it is only a man’s covenant, yet if it is confirmed, no one annuls or adds to it.

Therefore there are two ways. The ministry of death and the ministry of the Spirit. Each is independent of the other. The law was not annulled. And the ministry of the Spirit was not added to it.

Stranger said "Adam transgressed" and you said in your post that "Adam sinned but he did not transgress" -- the agreement that the two of you have there - escapes me just then... but I do see a lot of agreement between the two of you on some of the other points.

I'll say a third. Eve unwittingly trespassed, but Adam sinned willfully unto death, condemning the whole world. Adam broke a spoken commandment to him by God.

For example - Justification by faith - at the moment of justification you have Christ's righteousness imputed to you.

When we truly repent from all our past sin, Jesus takes away those sins, nailing them to His cross. We are sinless of sins unto death and have received Christ's righteousness. 1 John 3:7 He who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous. John further proclaims the righteousness of the Christian in verse 9." Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God. (Some add the word "practice" to this verse, but it not there.) This is why those who walk in the Spirit are not under the law as they do not fulfill the lusts of the flesh. We are either in the flesh and damned as those who will not inherit the Kingdom of God, or in the Spirit and are assured eternal life.

The false doctrine and mindset of those who claim we will always be in the flesh, and will always sin have slapped Jesus in the face, and do not understand the gospel of Jesus Christ and the power of the Spirit of Grace. To them the LAW is more important than the fact that Jesus freed us from our sin, and for them, the LAW is no longer applicable. There is another false doctrine, and that is that sinning in the flesh only reduces our rewards, and this is all it means when Galatians 5 says they will not inherit the Kingdom of God.

The major confusion is on what is written on our hearts? The Old Covenant commandments, or the eternal laws of God. I believe it is the eternal laws of God that were always commandments. They are "Love God with all your heart, soul and strength, and love your neighbor as yourself." Jesus is God. That is why our New Covenant commandments are so closely figured to the eternal laws of God. The NC commandments are to believe on the name of His Son Jesus Christ and to love your neighbor.
 
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justbyfaith

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I didn't mean to go back and do it,,,just to be careful in the future.
When snippets are posted, they sometimes change the original meaning of what was said...

I do this to save space and time. Sorry if it is an inconvenience.

"LORD" is NOT the name of God. The Father is only called "LORD" by the faulty translations and substitutes of men. The Scriptures call the Father "YHWH". The Scriptures also call the Father "Lord" or "Master" as a translation of the Hebrew "Adon" and/or "Adonai" or of the Greek "Kurios". It is not wrong to call the Father "Lord". What is wrong is to refer to Him as "LORD" in place of the name the Holy Spirit inspired to be written, YHWH. It is also wrong to use 1 Corinthians 8:6 to prove Yeshua is YHWH because there is "one Lord". That is a false understanding of Paul's words as I showed in a previous post.

I'm interested in you doing a study on what it says in the original languages in Matthew 11:25 and Luke 10:21 concerning what is translated Lord.

If I'm not mistaken, all renderings of "Lord" in the New Testament are from the Greek word kurios.

So then, No one can say that Jesus is the <Kurios> except by the Holy Ghost...1 Corinthians 12:3.

The Father is the <Kurios> of heaven and earth...Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21.

There is one <Kurios> 1 Corinthians 8:6, Ephesians 4:5, Jude 1:4 (kjv), Mark 12:29 (kjv).

Having it as merely a title suffices to prove that Jesus is the Lord God.
 
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1stCenturyLady

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So, no I don't believe it's correct to call Yahweh Lord as you're stating and using Mathew and Luke as proof texts.

I'm probably seeing this out of context, as I am ignoring the person you may be responding to, but what are you meaning "it is not correct to call Yahweh Lord"? Lord means Master. Don't you believe God is our Master?
 

justbyfaith

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I'll say a third. Eve unwittingly trespassed, but Adam sinned willfully unto death, condemning the whole world. Adam broke a spoken commandment to him by God.

Eve was deceived; and Adam made a choice to eat of the fruit; some say because he loved his wife more than he loved God and sacrificially ate of the tree so that she would not be condemned eternally without him; because in partaking of the fruit he made way for God to provide redemption for both of them as the human race; whereas if Adam had not partaken, Eve would have been left alone to face judgment and there may have never been a plan of redemption (in Adam's mind) concerning Eve alone. Thus showing that the devil in his subtilty found a way to use Adam's righteousness (his love for his wife) against him.

Sin was before the LAW, but it just wasn't imputed to us unto death until the law came into affect. Then the wages of sin became death.

The wages of sin has always been death. Death reigned from the time of Adam to Moses (Romans 6:23, Romans 5:14).

When we truly repent from all our past sin, Jesus takes away those sins, nailing them to His cross. We are sinless of sins unto death and have received Christ's righteousness. 1 John 3:7 He who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous. John further proclaims the righteousness of the Christian in verse 9." Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God. (Some add the word "practice" to this verse, but it not there.) This is why those who walk in the Spirit are not under the law as they do not fulfill the lusts of the flesh. We are either in the flesh and damned as those who will not inherit the Kingdom of God, or in the Spirit and are assured eternal life.

The false doctrine and mindset of those who claim we will always be in the flesh, and will always sin have slapped Jesus in the face, and do not understand the gospel of Jesus Christ and the power of the Spirit of Grace. To them the LAW is more important than the fact that Jesus freed us from our sin, and to them, the LAW is no longer applicable.

The gospel is that you can be forgiven through the blood of Jesus Christ, through the substitutionary atonement. This means that when Jesus died on the Cross, the Father looked at Jesus and saw all of your sin on Him and punished it in Him as He took the penalty for your sins. Now when God looks at you, He sees the perfect life, blood, and righteousness of Jesus Christ and imputes it to you because you have appropriated the shed blood of Christ to your sin (if you have done so, by faith).

The holiness aspect has to do with the fact that because you are perpetually forgiven, you love Jesus much (Luke 7:36-50, 1 John 4:19, Romans 5:5); and this love is not impractical (1 John 3:17-18) but is the fulfillment of the law's righteousness within you (Romans 13:8-10, Romans 8:4).

It is not that you become sinlessly perfect; but it is that in understanding you are a forgiven sinner, your love for Jesus and for other people increases out of sheer thankfulness.

The Bible teaches that your sin is ever before you (Romans 3:23, 1 John 1:8, Psalms 51:3, Galatians 3:22).

Therefore our only salvation must be in that we are forgiven of past, present, and future sin(s); because when Jesus died on the Cross my entire life and therefore all of my sins were still in the future: and also, when I pray the prayer of penitence found in Psalms 51:3, I acknowledge my transgressions and the fact that my sin is ever before me.

Therefore my salvation does not have its basis in my performance/works/law-keeping/personal holiness but in forgiveness of past, present, and future sin(s) through the shed blood of Jesus Christ.

Relationship is important; and therefore when we sin as believers, we are told to confess our sin(s) in order to be forgiven so that relationship is restored. But my redeemed position was never affected by my sin(s) as long as I didn't lose faith (John 5:24).

The God who made you sees the righteous blood of His only begotten Son when He looks at you if you simply put your trust in Him and His shed blood as a propitiation (Romans 4:6-8).
 

gadar perets

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I'm interested in you doing a study on what it says in the original languages in Matthew 11:25 and Luke 10:21 concerning what is translated Lord.

If I'm not mistaken, all renderings of "Lord" in the New Testament are from the Greek word kurios.

So then, No one can say that Jesus is the <Kurios> except by the Holy Ghost...1 Corinthians 12:3.

The Father is the <Kurios> of heaven and earth...Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21.

There is one <Kurios> 1 Corinthians 8:6, Ephesians 4:5, Jude 1:4 (kjv), Mark 12:29 (kjv).

Having it as merely a title suffices to prove that Jesus is the Lord God.
I agree with everything you wrote except the last sentence. There is a gigantic difference between Yeshua being "Lord" and him being "LORD God" ("YHWH Elohim"). The fact that YHWH and Yeshua are both called "Lord" does not make them the same being any more than Yeshua and Cyrus both being called "Maschiach" makes them the same being.
 
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Episkopos

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You need the Bible.

Stranger


I have both the bible and the Spirit. it is better to have more than one reference when taking a bearing. if you took the time to check out what I'm writing you would see that it is biblical....and spiritual. A lot of people write biblical sounding things....but there is no life in it. one must look for the life in the doctrines...and the righteous judgments of God.

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1stCenturyLady

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I agree with everything you wrote except the last sentence. There is a gigantic difference between Yeshua being "Lord" and him being "LORD God" ("YHWH Elohim"). The fact that YHWH and Yeshua are both called "Lord" does not make them the same being any more than Yeshua and Cyrus both being called "Maschiach" makes them the same being.

How do you explain what the "Child" of Isaiah 9:6 is called. Do you believe it is referring to Jesus or not?

There Jesus is called "Wonderful Counselor - the same as the Holy Spirit; Mighty God; Everlasting Father; Prince of Peace.

Jesus is the form of the godhead bodily.
 
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justbyfaith

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I have both the bible and the Spirit. it is better to have more than one reference when taking a bearing. if you took the time to check out what I'm writing you would see that it is biblical....and spiritual. A lot of people write biblical sounding things....but there is no life in it. one must look for the life in the doctrines...and the righteous judgments of God.

Friend
Anyone who preaches that the way to life is broad (see Matthew 7:13-14) does not have the Spirit; because they are preaching a false gospel (2 Corinthians 11:3-4, Galatians 1:6-9).