Arnie Manitoba
Well-Known Member
In Isa 14:12, The KJV translators did not actually translate the Hebrew word הילל as ‘Lucifer.’ This word occurs only here in the Hebrew Old Testament. Most likely, the KJV translators were not sure what to make of it, and simply duplicated the word used in the Latin Vulgate that translated הילל. In the Vulgate, Isa 14:12 reads as follows:Tropical Islander said:Forgery is a verk strong word. When does it apply?
Let's do an example where statements are made that directly oppose each other, like for example in:
Is the fall, recorded in Isaiah 14 about Lucifer [as the KJV and Hebrew text indicates] or Jesus, the morning star, as the NIV and NASB imply?
Give me your ideas, what you think about that contoversy. AND Who created that controversy?
quomodo cecidisti de caelo lucifer qui mane oriebaris corruisti in terram qui vulnerabas gentes.
Notice the fifth word of the text—lucifer. It is not a proper name but the Latin word for ‘morning star.’ The word lucifer occurs four times in the Vulgate: Isa 14:12, Job 11:17, Job 38:32, and 2 Peter 1:19. In Job 11:17, the KJV renders the Hebrew word בקר as ‘morning’:
et quasi meridianus fulgor consurget tibi ad vesperam et cum te consumptum putaveris orieris ut lucifer
explained better here .... https://bible.org/article/lucifer-devil-isaiah-1412-kjv-argument-against-modern-translations