ChristisGod
Well-Known Member
like God only means God when its the Father. Keep telling yourself that mystical meaning to Theos/YHWH.
Four Times People Physically Tried To Kill JESUS, But He Would Not Let Them Until He Decided When = Luke 4;24-31
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First of all Scripture NEVERS Calls Christ... GOD!!!
Don't be a biblical IDIOT!!!
Webster Dictonay
Christ
CHRIST, n. THE ANOINTED; an appellation given to the Savior of the World, and synonymous with the Hebrew Messiah. It was a custom of antiquity to consecrate persons to the sacerdotal and regal offices by anointing them with oil.
“Christ” God or title?
Dr. Hugh Schonfield, in his book the Passover Plot. Reported that many Christians he spoke with were not even aware that the term "Christ" was simply a Greek translation of the Hebrew title Messiah, and thought somehow that it referred to the Second Person of the Trinity. "So connected had the word ‘Christ’ become with the idea of Jesus as God incarnate that the title ‘Messiah’ was treated as something curiously Jewish and not associated.”
N.T. Write, the Bishop of Litchfield, agrees: “One of the most persistent mistakes throughout the literature on Jesus and the last hundred years is to use the word ‘Christ,’ which simply means ‘Messiah’, as though it was a ‘divine’ title.” Who was Jesus? p.57.
According to its OT usage, the term Messiah, the Anointed One, indicates a call to office.
Most certainly, it was not the title of an aspect of the Godhead. This is a later Gentile invention that came about by ignoring Jesus’ Jewish context and inventing a doctrine called the Incarnation- the idea that a second member of the Trinity, God the son, became a human being. As Lockhart says, in Jesus the Heretic, p.137. “Christianity ignored the ‘Messiah’ and theologically worked the ‘Christ’ up into the ‘God-Man.’ Jesus as the ‘Messiah’ is a human being; Jesus as the ‘Christ’ is something entirely different.”
Jesus calls himself "a man" (John 8:40) "But as it is, you are seeking to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God; this Abraham did not do. and the apostles call him "a man" (Acts 2: 22; 1 Tim. 2:5).
Act 2:22 "Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a man attested to you by God with miracles and wonders and signs which God performed through Him in your midst, just as you yourselves know--
Christophany... who preformed the miracles... According to Acts 2:22
YOUR ANSWER WILL DESIDE IF YOUR CHOSEN OR NOT...
PAY ATTENTION....
1Ti 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
He (JESUS) is constantly contrasted with and distinguished from God, his Father.
The Hebrew Bible or OT, predicted Jesus would be a man (Is.53:3). But never does the scriptures use the term "God-Man" to tell us who Jesus is. The Greek language of the day had a perfectly good word for “God-Man” (theios aner) but it never appears in the New Testament. So why do we persist with these extra-biblical terms? Why do we continue to employ non-biblical (i.e. unbiblical) language to describe Jesus?
The Bible verse saying is true which says that we are very quick to spot the speck in the eye of another's theology, but how blind we are to the beam in our own. Mary is not the mother of God, according to the scriptures. And neither is Jesus God the Son, nor is he the "God-Man" according to the Bible. And he is nowhere called "God of from God" as the later Nicene Creed called him. Protestants, people of the Bible ought to know that the contentious extra-biblical word used at Nicea, homoousios, meaning ‘of equal substance,’ “did not come from Scripture but, of all things, from Gnostic systems.” Quote from Born Before All-Time? p. 500. Kuschel.
The result was that such terminology introduced alien notions into Christian understanding of God. In other words, "an epoch-making paradigm shift has taken place between Scriptures and Nicea.” Born Before All-Time? p. 503. Kuschel
To the Jewish mind, accustomed to Old Testament teaching on the principles of agency and representation by which God appoints a man to speak or act on his behalf, such a concept was both familiar and acceptable. Whilst it is true that some of Christ's enemies believed him to be usurping or laying claim unlawfully to certain Divine rights or powers, not a single Jew ever thought that the miracles performed by Christ proved that he was a Divine being, and the gospel record indicates that many recognised that he was a man Divinely appointed to exercise power and authority on God's behalf.
When Jesus tells you....
Joh 17:3 "This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent.
I want you to understand.... If you do not know what Jesus is Talking about in John 17:3.... You will Hear these words...
Mat 7:22 "Many will say to Me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many miracles?' "And then I will declare to them, 'I never knew you; DEPART FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS.'
It matters..
Paul
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Mat 27:46 About the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, "ELI, ELI, LAMA SABACHTHANI?" that is, "MY GOD, MY GOD, WHY HAVE YOU FORSAKEN ME?"
Mar 15:34 At the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, "ELOI, ELOI, LAMA SABACHTHANI?" which is translated, "MY GOD, MY GOD, WHY HAVE YOU FORSAKEN ME?"
Joh 20:17 Jesus *said to her, "Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, 'I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.'"
Rev 3:2 'Wake up, and strengthen the things that remain, which were about to die; for I have not found your deeds completed in the sight of My God.
Rev 3:12 'He who overcomes, I will make him a pillar in the temple of My God, and he will not go out from it anymore; and I will write on him the name of My God, and the name of the city of My God, the new Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from My God, and My new name.
Keep posting Christoiphany.... I love using Jesus' very own words to expose how so very wrong!!! your post really are...
Paul
You must have missed my post...
You need to learn to address your mistakes one at a time... Let's start with I am...
I already posted this but seems you missed it...
There has been quite a bit of discussion on John 8:58. What happened to this verse as to confuse so many? Let's start in Exodus.
KJV Exo 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.
Now we shall read the same verse from the Greek Septuagint
Septuagint Exo 3:14 και ειπεν ο θεος προς μωυσην [εγω ειμι ο ων] και ειπεν ουτως ερεις τοις υιοις ισραηλ [ο ων] απεσταλκεν με προς υμας
Note the two separate Greek words used for 'am'
Concordant Literal Version Exo 3:14 Then Elohim spoke to Moses: I shall come to be just as I am coming to be. And He said: Thus shall you say to the sons of Israel, I-Shall-Come-to-Be has sent me to you.
Now when translated literally you get a whole different look. What happened to the other I am's?
The Hebrew Bible uses the word (hâyâh H1961) in the place of "Am" which is a verb meaning to exist, to be.
Check the Strongs' number.
Clearly Jesus did not say (εγω ειμι ο ων) nor did he state (ο ων), in John 8:58. Jesus spoke the words (εγω ειμι) just like other people in the bible who are not God. So just what was Jesus saying?
But what about the great "I Am him" statement of Jesus? Especially that classic one in John 8:58 where Jesus says, "Truly, truly I say to you, before Abraham was born I am"?
Surely here Jesus makes the same claim for himself that Jehovah God made back in Exodus 3 where the LORD says to Moses at the burning Bush "I Am Who I Am." Surely Jesus is claiming to be the I AM of the Old Testament as Trinitarian belief asserts?
Now here is something very obvious that they never told you in church. This expression from Jesus' lips "I am" (Greek ego eimi) occurs throughout the Gospel of John and in no text in John can it mean I AM, the God of the Old Testament.
Go back to John 4:25-26 for instance. The woman at the well said to Jesus, "I know that Messiah is coming (he who is called Christ); when that one comes, he will declare all things to us." And Jesus said to her, "I who speak with you am he." You will notice that in most Bibles that word he is in italics. This means that the translators have correctly supplied a word in English that is not in the Greek but that nevertheless makes the intended sense quite clear. Here Jesus says to the woman - in the context of her question about the Messiah - that he is the Messiah, the Christ. "I who speak to you am he." In the Greek it reads ego eimi. Jesus simply says I am he, the Messiah. Definitely not “I am is the one speaking to you!”
In John 9 Jesus heals the blind man. Is this really the beggar who used to sit groping in the dark? Some people said, "Yes, it's him all right." Other said, "No, he just looks like him." But the beggar says, " ego eimi!" And the translators have no problem writing, "I am the one." So why aren't the translators consistent? Why not capitalize what this man says as I AM? Because it is clear that he is not claiming to be the God of the Old Testament. Saying "I am" (ego eimi) does not make somebody God in the Bible!
What Jesus is saying is simply “Before Abraham was born, I am he,” that is, "I am the Messiah."
Notice the context in John 8:56 where Jesus says, "Abraham rejoiced to see my day." By faith Abraham looked forward and saw the coming Messiah before he came in history. He believed the promise that God would send the Promised One. On the other hand these Jews did not believe that Jesus was their Messiah. They were claiming to be Abraham's descendents. Jesus said that this was impossible for they did not recognize him as their Messiah. But Jesus asserts that even before Abraham was born, he is the One who was always in God's plan. This Abraham believe and saw. The Messiah preexisted in God's plan and therefore in Abraham's believing mind, because he trusted the promise of God. Jesus positively did not say, before Abraham was, I was." Also, Jesus did not say, “Before Abraham was, I AM WHAT I AM."
The conclusion is inevitable. Jesus’ claim "Before Abraham was born, I am he" is the straightforward claim that he is the long promised one, the Messiah, the One in question. Jesus is the Savior in God's promise even before Abraham was born.
The Jewish leaders were very well aware of what Jesus was saying about himself! Jesus Was not claiming to be God but the Son of God as Shown in John 19:6. They give the very reason they wanted Him dead!
John 19:6 When the chief priests therefore and officers saw him, they cried out, saying, Crucify him, crucify him. Pilate saith unto them, Take ye him, and crucify him: for I find no fault in him. 7 The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God.
Jesus, NEVER claimed to be God!
Study harder
Paul
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
Yes... and No
It's a gift...
Belief is a GIFT - Phil 1:29 - "For you have been granted [the gift] to grant as a favor for Christ's sake not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer in His behalf."
Faith is a GIFT - Eph 2:8-10 - "For it is by free grace (God's unmerited favor) that you are saved (delivered from judgment and made partakers of Christ's salvation) through [ the gift of] faith. And this [salvation] is not of yourselves, but it is the gift of God; Not because of works [not the fulfillment of the Law's demands], lest any man should boast. [It is not the result of what anyone can possibly do, so no one can pride himself in it or take glory to himself.] For we are God's [own] handiwork (His workmanship), recreated in Christ Jesus, [born anew] that we may do those good works which God predestined (planned beforehand) for us [taking paths which He prepared ahead of time], that we should walk in them [living the good life which He prearranged and made ready for us to live].
It's not of ourselfs...
You and I are blessed Wrangler... We have no say... nor glory in our understanding... It's a gift!!!
Paul
ChristisGod
Well-Known Member
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
Yet, you fail to actually cite one verse that states what you claim.
That’s your thoughtful reply? A sarcastic repose? Sad diversion from the inadequacy of your argument.
ChristisGod
Well-Known Member
I’ve provided 100’s of verses that expose unitarianism in this thread and the other thread.
Luk 18:19 And Jesus said to Christophany, "Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone.
Get ready..... Your going to hear these words....
Mat 7:22 "Christophany will say to Me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did I not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out unitarian calvinists, and in Your name perform many miracles?' "And then I will declare to him, 'I never knew you; DEPART FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS.'
Grab your Ankles.... Jesus is going to give you a Theological Spanking... just before His God saves you.... LOL
God is Love Christophany....
unitarian savior of ALL.... Calvinist... INDEED!!! 1Ti 4:10 For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have fixed our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of believers.
You have no idea to whom you speak...
LOL
Paul
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Wrangler
Well-Known Member
ChristisGod
Well-Known Member
They were answered its not my fault it wasn't to your liking.
BTW- questions are not apologetics in most cases they are excuses or rabbit trails.
ChristisGod
Well-Known Member
Scripture declares He is God and I say what scripture declares regarding the Person of Christ.
Isaiah 44:6
Thus says the Lord, the King of Israel
And his Redeemer, the Lord of hosts:
'I am the first and I am the last,
And there is no God besides Me.
Isaiah 48:12
"Listen to Me, O Jacob, even Israel whom I called;
I am He, I am the first, I am also the last.
John 8:24
I told you that you would die in your sins. Yes, if you don't believe that I AM(YHWH), you will die in your sins."
John 8:58
Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I Am.(YHWH)"
John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
John 20:28
Thomas answered and said to Him, "My Lord and my God!"
Romans 9:5
Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of Christ who is God over all forever praised! Amen.
Titus 2:13
looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Christ Jesus
1 Timothy 3:16
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory
Hebrews 1:8
But of the Son He says,
"YOUR THRONE O GOD IS FOREVER AND EVER
Hebrews 1:10
He also says,
"In the beginning, O Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth,
and the heavens are the work of your hands.
2 Peter 1:1
Simon Peter a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ
To those who through the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ have received a faith as precious as ours
2 Peter 1:11
for in this way the entrance into the eternal kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ will be abundantly supplied to you.
1 John 5:20
We know also that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true. And we are in him who is true even in His Son Jesus Christ. He is the true God and eternal life.
These passages in Revelation make it clear that Jesus is God. Remember it is Jesus in the GNT who is Coming back to earth that every eye will see. It was Jesus who was pierced on the cross for our sins. John is clearly once again calling Jesus God!!!!!!! The Coming and the coming in the clouds never refers to the Father in the GNT but always to Jesus.
Revelation 1:7-8
7 BEHOLD, HE IS COMING WITH THE CLOUDS, and every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him; and all the tribes of the earth will mourn over Him. So it is to be. Amen.
8 "I Am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty."
We know from Revelation 1:8 that Alpha and Omega is the Almighty. So we can see that Christ is the Almighty
Revelation 1:17
17And when I saw Him, I fell at his feet as dead. And He laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I Am the first and the last:
We know from Revelation 1:17-18 that the first and the last is He that liveth, was dead, but is alive forevermore is Christ.
Revelation 22:12-13
12 "Behold, I Am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to render to every man according to what he has done. 13 "I Am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end."
We know from Revelation 22:13 that the first and the last is the Alpha and Omega.
Revelation 22:16,20
16 "I, Jesus, have sent My angel to testify to you these things for the churches. I am the root and the descendant of David, the bright morning star."
20 He who testifies to these things says, "Yes, I Am coming quickly." Amen. Come, Lord Jesus.
Conclusion: So we can see that the One who comes/is coming in the NT always refers to Jesus the Son of Man and NEVER refers to the Father. Therefore we can conclude it is Jesus who is coming whom John calls God the Alpha and Omega, the First and the Last.. This is sound biblical exegesis based on the context of the passage as well as the principle established in both Testaments on the One who is Coming in/with the Clouds- The Son of Man not the Father !!!!!!
hope this helps !!!
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
No. You did not answer any of my 3 questions at all, let alone to my liking. HINT: A non-responsive reply is not an answer.
Getting back to my 1st question; does it make sense that God has a God? Your non-responsive reply was to invoke dualism. Asserting part of Jesus is not God. (Again, complete invention from the point of view of Scripture)
This just moves the goal post. It violates the law of identity.
Does it make sense to you that any part of God is not God?
any part of X is not X?
any part of a circle is not a circle?
any part of a dead is notdead?
any part of fish is not fish?
any part of food is not food?
any part of water is not water?
any part of man is not man?
For the record, my question is not about your dogma but your capacity to reason. This makes your Jesus-nature response a Non-sequitor.
We all have noticed your tendency to completely disregard Scripture that exposes the inherently contradictory dogma you hold. For instance, Acts 2:36 informs us that God made Jesus both Lord and Messiah. Such language usage, juxtaposing God with Jesus is found throughout Scripture and would not exist if they were the same person/being. It tells us Jesus was made, i.e., created. He was made both Lord and Messiah.
Who made Jesus these things? This question is about reading comprehension. To be able to tell the difference between the subject and object of a sentence. IF your dogma were true, the sentence would read that God made himself both Lord and Savior. We all know you will double down on your dogma to the n-th degree because you hold it more dear than the plain words of Scripture, logic, definition and even the words of Jesus himself. Jesus has a God and he says his God is the only true God. This means nothing to you as dualism trumps anything if need be to "support" what is inherently contradictory.
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
You are invoking a verse about God and pretending it applies to Jesus. Sad.
Notice how you underline the irrelevant part. What is relevant is God's use of the singular pronoun to end the verse. "There is no God besides me," he says.
And you are pretending the word "Lord" in this translation could apply to any of the the dozens of lords in Scripture. It doesn't. From
Complete Jewish Bible
6 Thus says Adonai, Isra’el’s King
and Redeemer, Adonai-Tzva’ot:
“I am the first, and I am the last;
besides me there is no God.
and Redeemer, Adonai-Tzva’ot:
“I am the first, and I am the last;
besides me there is no God.
So, you are attributing the words of Adonai, of YHWH, to his servant. Odd, that.
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
Shameless adding of words to Scripture in violation of Scripture. See Mark 7:13.
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
Another VERY BAD translation. CJB
the Patriarchs are theirs; and from them, as far as his physical descent is concerned, came the Messiah, who is over all. Praised be Adonaifor ever! Amen.
Praising God is not the same as being God. Being over all is not the same as being God. We know this because another passage in Corinthians explicitly exempts God regarding who all are under Christs authority.
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
There are many verses like this that you are denying are referring to 2 Beings but are clear in context.
For instance, 1 Peter 1:2 says ‘God the Father’ in obedience to Christ. And 2 Peter 1:2 refers to knowledge of God AND of Jesus, our Lord.
It’s desperate to suppose God refers to anyone other than the Father when it is stated by these monotheists over and over again as 1 Peter 1:17 does. Implied is the absurd assertion that unless Scripture uses ‘the Father’ in invoking the word God, it must be referring to the son, by default.
It is far more consistent to go with the explicit ‘God the Father’ - which every epistle invokes - is being referred to when God alone is the text.
Since ‘God the Son’ is not stated once, it is the most extreme form of exegesis to suppose the word ‘God’ could be referring to any God but the one true God who is the Father of Jesus. Again, as explicitly stated in Ephesians 1:3 and other places.
Hope this helps.
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ChristisGod
Well-Known Member
Try sticking to the context and Greek construction of the verse in 2 Peter 1:1.
2 Peter 1:1
τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
2 Peter 1:11
τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
2 Peter 1:1
our God and Savior, Jesus Christ
2 Peter 1:11
our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ
We have a second person possessive pronoun "Our" modifying two different improper nouns (God and Savior) joined by "and" (Kia) to identify a proper noun (Jesus) [Granville/Sharp's]. Therefore, by basic grammar, we are identifying Jesus as God and Savior. We don't even have to know the Greek to see that Jesus is being called both God and Savior/ Lord and Savior in Peters 2nd Epistle. 2 Peter 2:20 and 2 Peter 3:18 also have the same Greek construction as 1:1 and 1:11.
But for those interested in the Greek here is the comparison of 1:1 and 1:11.
τοῦ is the same.
ἡμῶν is the same.
καὶ is the same.
Σωτῆρος is the same.
Ἰησοῦ is the same.
Χριστοῦ· is the same.
And all in the same order.
The only difference is the noun "Θεοῦ" in v.1, while "Κυρίου" is in v.11.
So if he wants to deny that Jesus is "God" ("theou") in v.1, then he has to deny that Jesus is "Lord" ("kuriou") in v.11. Otherwise he's being inconsistent and dishonest with the text. To say otherwise is proof positive one has an agenda when reading scripture and using eisegesis rather than exegesis of the biblical text in question.
Peter refers to Christ as our God and Saviour- Lord and Saviour just the same as Paul in Titus 2:13 and it’s the same Greek construction in Titus 2:13 as it is in 2 Peter 1:1 and 1:11.
It’s time for you to wake up to that fact. It’s impossible for you to read it any other way because of your doctrine.
And the One who is coming / appearing in the NT is always the Son and NEVER the Father.
This is a trinitarian slam dunk !
epiphanea
2 Thes 2:8
8 Then that lawless one will be revealed whom the Lord will slay with the breath of His mouth and bring to an end by the appearance of His coming;
1 Tim 6:14
14 that you keep the commandment without stain or reproach until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ,
2 Tim 1:10
10 but now has been revealed by the appearing of our Savior Christ Jesus,
2 Tim 4:1
I solemnly charge you in the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who is to judge the living and the dead, and by His appearing and His kingdom:
2 Tim 4:8
8 in the future there is laid up for me the crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous Judge, will award to me on that day; and not only to me, but also to all who have loved His appearing.
Titus 2:13
13 looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus,
Titus 2:13
Of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ tou megalou Theou kai sooteeros Ieesou Christou. This is the necessary meaning of the one article with Theou and sooteeros just as in 2 Peter 1:1,11. See Robertson, Grammar, p. 786. Westcott and Hort read Christou Ieesou.
(from Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament, Electronic Database. Copyright © 1997, 2003, 2005, 2006 by Biblesoft, Inc. Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament. Copyright © 1985 by Broadman Press.)
Parousia
Matt 24:3
3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?
Matt 24:27
27 For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
Matt 24:37
37 But as the days of Noah were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
Matt 24:39
39 And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
1 Cor 15:23
23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
1 Thess 2:19
19 For what is our hope, or joy, or crown of rejoicing? Are not even ye in the presence of our Lord Jesus Christ at his coming?
1 Thess 3:13
13 To the end he may establish your hearts unblameable in holiness before God, even our Father, at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ with all his saints.
1 Thess 4:15
15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
1 Thess 5:23
23 And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.
2 Thess 2:1
2 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
2 Thess 2:8
8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming
James 5:7
7 Be patient therefore, brethren, unto the coming of the Lord.
James 5:8
8 Be ye also patient; stablish your hearts: for the coming of the Lord draweth nigh.
2 Peter 1:16
16 For we have not followed cunningly devised fables, when we made known unto you the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but were eyewitnesses of his majesty.
2 Peter 3:4
4 And saying, Where is the promise of His coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation.
1 John 2:28-29
28 Now, little children, abide in Him, so that when He appears, we may have confidence and not shrink away from Him in shame at His coming. 29 If you know that He is righteous, you know that everyone also who practices righteousness is born of Him.
And 2 Thes 2:8 links both His appearing / coming as the same event of Christ not the Father. Both epiphenea and parousia together below in the same verse.
2 Thes 2:8
8 Then that lawless one will be revealed whom the Lord will slay with the breath of His mouth and bring to an end by the appearance of His coming;
1 Peter 1:7
7 That the trial of your faith, being much more precious than of gold that perisheth, though it be tried with fire, might be found unto praise and honour and glory at the appearing of Jesus Christ:
Case closed for the Unitarian camp !
This is where Unitarians really fail badly because they are so consumed with disproving the Deity of Christ that they fail with a well rounded theology which would benefit them greatly . You see how all biblical doctrines fit together seamlessly and especially in this case prove beyond all doubt that the one and only Person Paul was referring to in Titus 2:13 as God was Jesus and not the Father for He is never once in Scripture referred to as the One who is Coming/ Appearing .
hope this helps !!!
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ChristisGod
Well-Known Member
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