StanJ said:
Well I was referring to TULIP and not Baptist doctrine,
The 1689 London Baptist Confession is a
Reformed confession. What I quoted is representative of the "L" in TULIP. The 1689 LBC is no different than any other Reformed confession on Limited Atonement. So your assertion that
"RT does believe that Jesus died for ALL sin" is absurd.
but in any event, this does go against 1 John 2:2....funny how you can't see that.
John reiterates this again in 4:10;
This is love: not that we loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son as an atoning sacrifice for our sins.
I've already answered 1 John 2:2 quite clearly. It's there if you need to read it again. As for 1 John 4:10, the phrase "for our sins" doesn't support your view in the least. John was writing to professing believers, not the world in general. Anyone reading 1 John can plainly see this. Had you bothered to read more than your proof text you would have seen that too.
1Jn 2:1 My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous.
Instead of continually throwing other verses at the issue, maybe you should deal with the ones that have already been quoted here.
I can give you others, but I doubt you will address them.
Jesus died for all people.
- Luke 19:10. "For the Son of Man has come to seek and to save that which was lost."
- John 12:32. "And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all peoples to Myself."
- Romans 5:18. "Therefore, as through one man's offense judgment came to all men, resulting in condemnation, even so through one Man's righteous act the free gift came to all men, resulting in justification of life."
- 2 Corinthians 5:14, 15. "For the love of Christ compels us, because we judge thus: that if One died for all, then all died; and He died for all, that those who live should live no longer for themselves, but for Him who died for them and rose again."
- 1 Timothy 2:5, 6. "For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, who gave Himself a ransom for all…"
- 1 Timothy 4:10. "For to this end we both labor and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of those who believe."
- Hebrews 2:9. "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, for the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that He, by the grace of God, might taste death for everyone."
Anyway you slice it, Jesus died for ALL sin and ALL men.
You doubt that I will address your proof texts? That's amusing in light of the fact that you ignored the texts that I p9sted yesterday. Here they are again:
Joh 10:11 I am the good shepherd.
The good shepherd lays down his life for the sheep.
Joh 10:15 just as the Father knows me and I know the Father;
and I lay down my life for the sheep.
Mat 20:28 even as the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve,
and to give his life as a ransom for many."
Eph 5:2 And walk in love, as Christ loved us and
gave himself up for us, a fragrant offering and sacrifice to God.
Tit 2:13 waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ,
Tit 2:14 who gave himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people for his own possession who are zealous for good works.
Rev 5:9 And they sang a new song, saying, "Worthy are you to take the scroll and to open its seals, for you were slain,
and by your blood you ransomed people for God from every tribe and language and people and nation,
It looks like the NT contradicts itself, but it doesn't. The problem here is your lack of attention to context and your forced definition of "all." I proved that "world" doesn't mean everyone without exception. The same holds true for "all" in your proof texts. Let's establish the semantic range of "all" and then we can look at your texts in context.
πᾶς
pas
Thayer Definition:
1) individually
1a) each, every, any, all, the whole, everyone, all things,everything
2) collectively
2a) some of all types
Part of Speech: adjective
A Related Word by Thayer’s/Strong’s Number: including all the forms of declension
Citing in TDNT: 5:886, 795
"All" can mean "some of all types." "World" can mean "any aggregate or general collection of particulars of any sort." in other words, Jews and Gentiles or some from every tribe, tongue and nation." If you insist on your forced definition of either of these words, the contradictions are unresolvable. Now for your proof texts:
Luke 19:10 - I have no idea why you posted this one. It proves nothing in this discussion.
John 12:32 - All men in this case refers to Jews and Gentiles as in "some of all types." The occasion was the coming of some Gentiles to see Jesus. Jesus' response was that the hour had come for him to be glorified and it culminated with the statement that he would draw all men to himself. Again, all = world = Jews and Gentiles = some from every tribe, tongue and nation.
Romans 5:18 - You obviously didn't think this one through. If "all men" means everyone without exception as you believe then this verse teaches universalism. If your understanding is correct, this verse doesn't just prove universal atonement, it proves universal
justification and life for all men without exception. I'll let you think about this one before I say any more about it.
Rom 5:18 Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men.
2 Corinthians 5:14 &15 - "All" here is limited to "those who live" in verse 15. Read carefully:
2Co 5:15 and he died for all, that those who live might no longer live for themselves but for him who for their sake died and was raised.
When we see the word "all" we have to ask ourselves, all of what or all of who? Does the surrounding context tell us? Verse 15 says that Christ died "for their sake." Whose sake? "Those who live." Again, if you insist that "all" means everyone without exception then verse 14 teaches universalism. If all without exception died with Christ as you would have verse 14 teach, then all without exception reap the benefits of his death and resurrection.
1 Timothy 2:5 & 6 - You've created another contradiction:
Mat 20:28 even as the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many.
1Ti 2:6 who gave himself as a ransom for all, which is the testimony given at the proper time.
So how do we reconcile this contradiction? We read "all" with the proper definition in mind. "All" here refers to Jews and Gentiles collectively. How do I know this. I read verse 7.
1Ti 2:7 For this I was appointed a preacher and an apostle (I am telling the truth, I am not lying), a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and truth.
1 Timothy 4:10 - If "all men" means everyone without exception as you would have it, then one again we have a verse that teaches universalism. The verse does not say that God is the
potential savior of all men, it says that God
is the savior of all men -- especially those who believe. Your understanding of "all" gives us not only universalism, it also teaches that believers are "especially" saved -- whatever that means.
Hebrews 2:9 - Who is "everyone?" Again, you need to read your proof texts in context. "Everyone" refers to those who are saved.
Heb 2:9 But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death,
so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.
Heb 2:10 For it was fitting that he, for whom and by whom all things exist, in bringing
many sons to glory, should make the founder of
their salvation perfect through suffering.
Heb 2:11 For he who sanctifies and those who are sanctified all have one source.
That is why he is not ashamed to call them brothers,
Heb 2:12 saying,
"I will tell of your name to my brothers; in the midst of the congregation I will sing your praise."
Heb 2:13 And again, "I will put my trust in him." And again,
"Behold, I and the children God has given me."