Homosexuality: Wrong or Right?

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Sheila3

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One verse alone answers your question or statement.

The love of Jonathan and David in the OT has been praised and admired for centuries. It is this one verse alone that I have not ever seen explained away or refuted -

"I am distressed for you, my brother Jonathan; greatly beloved were you to me; your love to me was wonderful, passing the love of women." (2 Sam. 1:26 NRSVue)

The church as always claimed that love was depicting the love of a wife for her husband. But, the word is plural, "women". The words "wife", "mother", "wives" and "mothers" were used in the Bible translations* many times prior to the writing of 2 Sam. 1:26; so if the verse spoke of love of wife or mother, it would clearly state it so, but it does not. In looking at the word "women" in a sexual context, the following is found in 1 Samuel -

"Now Eli was very old. He heard all that his sons were doing to all Israel and how they lay with the women who served at the entrance to the tent of meeting." (1 Sam. 2:22 NRSVue)

"The priest answered David, 'I have no ordinary bread at hand, only holy bread—provided that the young men have kept themselves from women. David answered the priest, 'Indeed, women have been kept from us as always when I go on an expedition; the vessels of the young men are holy even when it is a common journey; how much more today will their vessels be holy?'” (1 Sam 21:4-5 NRSVue)

That shows clearly what is meant by "love of women" in 1 Sam. 1:26! The meaning is so clear, that Jerome in his Latin Vulgate translation even added a fraudulent sentence to the verse in order to deflect the sure meaning of the authentic wording. Jerome added the sentence I am emphasizing in bold, as it is translated in the Douay -

"I grieve for thee, my brother Jonathan: exceeding beautiful, and amiable to me above the love of women. As the mother loveth her only son, so did I love thee." (2Sam 1:26 DRC)

* It is true that the Hebrew word as shown in the Strong's Dictionary "'ishshah (ish-shaw') n-f" can also be translated "female and "adulteress", but as noted above, no standard translation uses any other word in 2 Sam. 1:26, than "women".

The replies to this reply I've written, MUST explain this verse in its context;, don't sail around scattering arguments based on passages found from Genesis to Revelation. A single verse alone must be properly understood before it is placed in some type of "proof texting" arrangement.

There are two other observations in 1 Samuel that agree with 2 Sam. 1:26; that the love of Jonathan and David also had a sexual dimension to it, as is not uncommon among close male friendships. I am NOT saying that David or Jonathan were what people today call "gay", for both were married with offspring.

One verse alone answers your question or statement.

The love of Jonathan and David in the OT has been praised and admired for centuries. It is this one verse alone that I have not ever seen explained away or refuted -

"I am distressed for you, my brother Jonathan; greatly beloved were you to me; your love to me was wonderful, passing the love of women." (2 Sam. 1:26 NRSVue)

The church as always claimed that love was depicting the love of a wife for her husband. But, the word is plural, "women". The words "wife", "mother", "wives" and "mothers" were used in the Bible translations* many times prior to the writing of 2 Sam. 1:26; so if the verse spoke of love of wife or mother, it would clearly state it so, but it does not. In looking at the word "women" in a sexual context, the following is found in 1 Samuel -

"Now Eli was very old. He heard all that his sons were doing to all Israel and how they lay with the women who served at the entrance to the tent of meeting." (1 Sam. 2:22 NRSVue)

"The priest answered David, 'I have no ordinary bread at hand, only holy bread—provided that the young men have kept themselves from women. David answered the priest, 'Indeed, women have been kept from us as always when I go on an expedition; the vessels of the young men are holy even when it is a common journey; how much more today will their vessels be holy?'” (1 Sam 21:4-5 NRSVue)

That shows clearly what is meant by "love of women" in 1 Sam. 1:26! The meaning is so clear, that Jerome in his Latin Vulgate translation even added a fraudulent sentence to the verse in order to deflect the sure meaning of the authentic wording. Jerome added the sentence I am emphasizing in bold, as it is translated in the Douay -

"I grieve for thee, my brother Jonathan: exceeding beautiful, and amiable to me above the love of women. As the mother loveth her only son, so did I love thee." (2Sam 1:26 DRC)

* It is true that the Hebrew word as shown in the Strong's Dictionary "'ishshah (ish-shaw') n-f" can also be translated "female and "adulteress", but as noted above, no standard translation uses any other word in 2 Sam. 1:26, than "women".

The replies to this reply I've written, MUST explain this verse in its context;, don't sail around scattering arguments based on passages found from Genesis to Revelation. A single verse alone must be properly understood before it is placed in some type of "proof texting" arrangement.

There are two other observations in 1 Samuel that agree with 2 Sam. 1:26; that the love of Jonathan and David also had a sexual dimension to it, as is not uncommon among close male friendships. I am NOT saying that David or Jonathan were what people today call "gay", for both were married with offspring.
No, that is not a homosexual relationship nor does any of the scriptures you've listed indicate homosexual relationships.

It simply represents love in its truest form. And people still have that type of Love today without sexual interlude.

And in most cases the true love that a man has for a woman or a woman has for a man surpasses the love that a man has for his mother, father, or even children that is why David made those comparisons _ and if I am correct David had no children then.

So no you haven't shown me a scripture that supports homosexuality.

And if you truly think about it and what your attempts are _ what you are actually doing is only to poison the character of David and not showing that God supports a homosexuality.
 

Sheila3

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It's SAD to see 'Christians' leading gays to Hell fire!
Christians aren't leading gays to Hell's fire.... Christians are repeating what is written in scripture thousands of years before the term Christian came into existence.
The Bible tells of all who do the works of unrighteousness which is against the will of God, their outcome. Nor it just apply to homosexuality, as you are singling out _ it applies ALSO to rapist, murderers, liars, adulterers, fornicators, sorcerers, those who practice bestiality and such.
 

Sheila3

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You claims has been refuted:
???????
 
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Sheila3

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Well, E...X ...C...U...S...E me for attempting to support your position!
Your wording is off - as if I actually believed there may have been scriptures such as that. And I see why/how I got that vibe.

And I will apologize to you for misunderstanding your intentions.
 
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Rella ~ I am a woman

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Neither did God say:
"Thou shall not be homosexual"
Unbelievable.

God never said dont be a homoseuxal , lesbian, transgender, or lover of beasts.

What he said was keep it zipped or face the consequences of your abominations.

AND DONT DARE say that God God did not mention Transgender .... Maybe he did not have to because a true transgender may not be able to vo-dee-o-dodo. He did stipulate about beastiality.

Leviticus 20:13
King James Version
13 If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.

It is not the people that are wrong... it is their actions.

Just like single people have to be celibate until they marry.

And dont go sayin that gays marry so that makes it alright because he also said.

"

King James Bible
Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh."

IOW..... IN OTHER WORDS Boy/girl.... Girl/boy

It is the action.....

God does not condemn Eunuchs either as they cannot procreate because they are incapable of doing the deed.

 
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St. SteVen

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Rella ~ I am a woman

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Will you cherry-pick that one verse from the Law of Moses and ignore the rest of the chapter?
Do you agree with:
- The death penalty for any "sexual misconduct"?
- Polygamy, except in the case of a man marrying his wife's sister as a rival wife? (Leviticus 18:18) Compare vs 22

Where is the real abomination? - The context of Leviticus 18:22 and Leviticus 20:13

/
No.

You made my point.

Leviticus 18:22 - You shall not lie with a male as with a woman; it is an abomination.

Leviticus 20:13 - If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood is upon them.

It is the act, not the person.

Do you disagree that ....
Abomination Definition in the Bible

In the Bible, the term "abomination" is used to refer to something detestable, morally repugnant, or offensive in the eyes of God. The concept is found in both the Old and New Testaments, and the specific instances and contexts in which the term is used vary.

In the Old Testament, for example, certain actions, behaviors, or practices are described as abominations. These can include idolatry, various forms of immorality, and practices associated with pagan religions. Leviticus 18 and 20, for instance, list various sexual prohibitions and other moral laws, stating that engaging in these actions is an abomination before God.

In the New Testament, the term is also used, but the focus often shifts to matters related to hypocrisy, self-righteousness, and rejecting the teachings of Jesus. In the Gospel of Luke 16:15, Jesus says, "You are those who justify yourselves before men, but God knows your hearts. For what is exalted among men is an abomination in the sight of God."

An "abomination" in English is that which is especially deplorable, repugnant, sinful, corrupt, or depraved. Things referred to as abominations in the Bible often may imply that which is prohibited or corrupted according to Christian doctrine. Abomination relates very closely to the idea of sin as that which we are commanded to refrain from participating in or encouraging. Discover further context of abomination in the Bible from the collection of scripture below!
 

St. SteVen

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Do you disagree that ....
Abomination Definition in the Bible
I'm pointing to the context of the statements.

The passage begins this way...
1 The Lord spoke to Moses, saying:
2 “Speak to the Israelites and say to them:
I am the Lord your God.
- Leviticus 18:1-2

And ends this way...
You shall be holy to me, for I the Lord am holy,
and I have separated you from the other peoples to be mine.
- Leviticus 20:26

These passages were given to the Israelites before they entered the Promised Land.
God wanted them to STOP these practices among them, which they were already doing.
So as to not be like those in the land they were going to.

These things were an abomination to God in this context. Nothing said prior. How come?

/
 

St. SteVen

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Leviticus 18 and 20, for instance, list various sexual prohibitions and other moral laws, stating that engaging in these actions is an abomination before God.
Again...
Do you agree with:
- The death penalty for any "sexual misconduct"?
- Polygamy, except in the case of a man marrying his wife's sister
as a rival wife? (Leviticus 18:18) Compare vs 22

Will you cherry-pick what supports your POV and ignore the rest?

/
 
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Rella ~ I am a woman

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I'm pointing to the context of the statements.

The passage begins this way...
1 The Lord spoke to Moses, saying:
2 “Speak to the Israelites and say to them:
I am the Lord your God.
- Leviticus 18:1-2

And ends this way...
You shall be holy to me, for I the Lord am holy,
and I have separated you from the other peoples to be mine.
- Leviticus 20:26

These passages were given to the Israelites before they entered the Promised Land.
God wanted them to STOP these practices among them, which they were already doing.
So as to not be like those in the land they were going to.

These things were an abomination to God in this context. Nothing said prior. How come?

/
I dont know.

It is possible that the Father , upon His selection of "His chosen" was specifying stricter guidelines?

Does the fact that Leviticus specifies things from God , do you feel that means it does not apply to anyone else? Like us today?
 

St. SteVen

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I dont know.

It is possible that the Father , upon His selection of "His chosen" was specifying stricter guidelines?

Does the fact that Leviticus specifies things from God , do you feel that means it does not apply to anyone else? Like us today?
Good. I'm glad that you are giving this some serious consideration. Thanks.

The Apostle Paul told us that we are no longer under the law. (scripture below)
Yet, those with a political axe to grind, use the law (we are no longer under) to make their case.
There is very little in the NT about this issue. And questions about doctrinal bias in the translation work.

As if to say:
"The law we are no longer under calls it an abomination!" - LOL ???

Galatians 3:23-25 NIV
Before the coming of this faith,[a] we were held in custody under the law,
locked up until the faith that was to come would be revealed.
24 So the law was our guardian until Christ came that we might be justified by faith.
25 Now that this faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian.

/
 
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St. SteVen

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As if to say:
"The law we are no longer under calls it an abomination!" - LOL ???
--- PARODY ---

Person #1: That's against the law!
Person #2: Say what?
Person #1: What you are doing is against the law in Georgia.
Person #2: I'm not too concerned.
Person #1: Why not? !!!
Person #2: We're in Montana right now.
Person #1: That's no excuse!
Person #2: LOL

/
 
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JohnDB

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There is very little in the NT about this issue. And questions about doctrinal bias in the translation work.
Not true....
Proper hermeneutics show that Jesus, Paul, and Peter all mentioned homosexuality and that they have been and continue to be destined for hell. Nothing changed between old and new Covenants.

God does not change....ever.
Mankind changes as the wind changes...God does not. The Covenant changed to allow innocuous behavior by Gentiles to be acceptable but worship of self and/or other gods has never been acceptable and continues to this day into eternity.
 

St. SteVen

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Nothing changed between old and new Covenants.
Right. - LOL
That's why one is called old and the other is called new. - LOL

Hebrews 8:7, 13 NIV
7 For if there had been nothing wrong with that first covenant, no place would have been sought for another. .....
13 By calling this covenant “new,” he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear.

/
 
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Jack

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Christians aren't leading gays to Hell's fire.... Christians are repeating what is written in scripture thousands of years before the term Christian came into existence.
The Bible tells of all who do the works of unrighteousness which is against the will of God, their outcome. Nor it just apply to homosexuality, as you are singling out _ it applies ALSO to rapist, murderers, liars, adulterers, fornicators, sorcerers, those who practice bestiality and such.
I'm not "singling out" anyone. This thread is about homosexuals. I will assume that you are gay.
 
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Adrift

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Homosexuals, lesbians, transgenders, pedophiles, and bestiality are not only scriptural abominations, but also, from a practical view, they are unnatural (incompatible plumbing) and immensely disgusting and perverse. The pervert-pushers on this forum who continually attempt to twist God's Word into a lie should think hard about the consequences for such activities.