Ever ask yourself how can God establish a testimony or bear witness or judge any one when He requires this of man?
Deuteronomy 17:6 At the mouth of two witnesses, or three witnesses, shall he that is worthy of death be put to death; but at the mouth of one witness he shall not be put to death.
Deuteronomy 19:15 One witness shall not rise up against a man for any iniquity, or for any sin, in any sin that he sinneth: at the mouth of two witnesses, or at the mouth of three witnesses, shall the matter be established.
That commandment is carried out in the N.T. still.
Matthew 18:16 But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.
2 Corinthians 13:1This is the third time I am coming to you. In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established.
1 Timothy 5:19 Against an elder receive not an accusation, but before two or three witnesses. 20 Them that sin rebuke before all, that others also may fear.
So how can God judge if the Father judges no man?
John 5:22 For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:
So when we look at the incident of the tower of babel, we see God speaking in the plural sense as if talking to Himself and yet when performing the act of judgment, He did it all by Himself.
Genesis 11:6 And the Lord said, Behold, the people is one, and they have all one language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do. 7 Go to, let us go down, and there confound their language, that they may not understand one another's speech. 8 So the Lord scattered them abroad from thence upon the face of all the earth: and they left off to build the city. 9 Therefore is the name of it called Babel; because the Lord did there confound the language of all the earth: and from thence did the Lord scatter them abroad upon the face of all the earth.
Same thing happened when establishing a word in creation of man.
Genesis 1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. 27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.
So what is going on here? Is there more than One Person in the Godhead? Are there 3 Witnesses within the One God for how God can say and do those things for why He commands that of men? Mind boggling, but wait, there is more.
John 5:31 If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.
John 8:17 It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true.
So what happened when God the Father bore witness of His Son as God at His water baptism? He needed Another Witness for His testimony to be true.
Matthew 3:15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him. 16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: 17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
The Holy Spirit added to the Father's testimony for how I see the Triune God doing the very commandment He tells others to do.
Segue to ; why did Jesus say what He did in Matthew 3:15? Fulfill what righteousness? A prophesy?
Isaiah 48:16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord God, and his Spirit, hath sent me. 17 Thus saith the Lord, thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; I am the Lord thy God which teacheth thee to profit, which leadeth thee by the way that thou shouldest go.
The Lord God Redeemer is speaking and yet the Lord God and His Spirit sent Him? Hmmm....
So there is the One God but not a One Person One God, but a Three witnesses within that One God. Spectacular!
So does 1 John 5:7 originally belonged in scripture about the Three Witnesses in Heaven for why God's witness is greater then men's? There are extra biblical sources from earlier Christian writings testifying to 1 John 5:7 as being originally written in scripture. David W. Daniels is the author of that book where that web page from that book is showing that information at this site listing earlier references proving 1 John 5:7 is scripture.
Incidentally, I am not endorsing the entire site there but that page at that book is what I am sharing as evidence for 1 John 5:7 is scripture.
Chick.com: Is 1 John 5:7 not in any Greek manuscript before the 1600s? If it is true, why is it in the KJV?
One reference listed is:
250 AD Cyprian of Carthage, wrote, "And again, of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost it is written: "And the three are One" in his On The Lapsed, On the Novatians, (see note for Old Latin)
If you scroll down about the middle of that web page you will see that list going far back as 200 A.D., but I think the one in 250 A.D. is more of a valid reference than the one in 200 A.D. if you see what I mean.
So that is why the One God is the Triune God because there are Three witnesses within that One God for how God can bear witness or judge any one.
Deuteronomy 17:6 At the mouth of two witnesses, or three witnesses, shall he that is worthy of death be put to death; but at the mouth of one witness he shall not be put to death.
Deuteronomy 19:15 One witness shall not rise up against a man for any iniquity, or for any sin, in any sin that he sinneth: at the mouth of two witnesses, or at the mouth of three witnesses, shall the matter be established.
That commandment is carried out in the N.T. still.
Matthew 18:16 But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.
2 Corinthians 13:1This is the third time I am coming to you. In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established.
1 Timothy 5:19 Against an elder receive not an accusation, but before two or three witnesses. 20 Them that sin rebuke before all, that others also may fear.
So how can God judge if the Father judges no man?
John 5:22 For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:
So when we look at the incident of the tower of babel, we see God speaking in the plural sense as if talking to Himself and yet when performing the act of judgment, He did it all by Himself.
Genesis 11:6 And the Lord said, Behold, the people is one, and they have all one language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do. 7 Go to, let us go down, and there confound their language, that they may not understand one another's speech. 8 So the Lord scattered them abroad from thence upon the face of all the earth: and they left off to build the city. 9 Therefore is the name of it called Babel; because the Lord did there confound the language of all the earth: and from thence did the Lord scatter them abroad upon the face of all the earth.
Same thing happened when establishing a word in creation of man.
Genesis 1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. 27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.
So what is going on here? Is there more than One Person in the Godhead? Are there 3 Witnesses within the One God for how God can say and do those things for why He commands that of men? Mind boggling, but wait, there is more.
John 5:31 If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.
John 8:17 It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true.
So what happened when God the Father bore witness of His Son as God at His water baptism? He needed Another Witness for His testimony to be true.
Matthew 3:15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him. 16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: 17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
The Holy Spirit added to the Father's testimony for how I see the Triune God doing the very commandment He tells others to do.
Segue to ; why did Jesus say what He did in Matthew 3:15? Fulfill what righteousness? A prophesy?
Isaiah 48:16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord God, and his Spirit, hath sent me. 17 Thus saith the Lord, thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; I am the Lord thy God which teacheth thee to profit, which leadeth thee by the way that thou shouldest go.
The Lord God Redeemer is speaking and yet the Lord God and His Spirit sent Him? Hmmm....
So there is the One God but not a One Person One God, but a Three witnesses within that One God. Spectacular!
So does 1 John 5:7 originally belonged in scripture about the Three Witnesses in Heaven for why God's witness is greater then men's? There are extra biblical sources from earlier Christian writings testifying to 1 John 5:7 as being originally written in scripture. David W. Daniels is the author of that book where that web page from that book is showing that information at this site listing earlier references proving 1 John 5:7 is scripture.
Incidentally, I am not endorsing the entire site there but that page at that book is what I am sharing as evidence for 1 John 5:7 is scripture.
Chick.com: Is 1 John 5:7 not in any Greek manuscript before the 1600s? If it is true, why is it in the KJV?
One reference listed is:
250 AD Cyprian of Carthage, wrote, "And again, of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost it is written: "And the three are One" in his On The Lapsed, On the Novatians, (see note for Old Latin)
If you scroll down about the middle of that web page you will see that list going far back as 200 A.D., but I think the one in 250 A.D. is more of a valid reference than the one in 200 A.D. if you see what I mean.
So that is why the One God is the Triune God because there are Three witnesses within that One God for how God can bear witness or judge any one.
