Is It Possible?

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TexUs

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Totally agree with you here, and have yet to see you or others here deal with all the verses that state the reconciliation of everyone.

You know, I dealt with them in your other thread and you couldn't even respond to them taken in context.
 

jiggyfly

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You know, I dealt with them in your other thread and you couldn't even respond to them taken in context.

That just isn't true.

Deal with these five and then we can go from there.
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John 12:32

Acts 3:21

Romans 11:32

Col. 1 :19&20

1 Tim. 4:10
 

TexUs

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That just isn't true.
Nonsense. People can feel free to go read my debunking of your prooftexting here.
http://www.christianityboard.com/topic/12648-does-god-love-everyone/page__view__findpost__p__96232

Deal with these five and then we can go from there.
smile.gif


John 12:32

Acts 3:21

Romans 11:32

Col. 1 :19&20

1 Tim. 4:10
Considering I've already addressed 3/5 I can address the two I haven't, John 12:32 and Romans 11:32.

Romans 11:32 really can only be understood by reading the whole chapter. Paul is discussing Jew and Gentiles the entire post. When he says "all", he's referring to both Jew and Gentile.
It's like if I'm sorting red and blue marbles and say, "this is too much work, chunk them all in a bag"... I'd be referring to the red and blue marbles, I am not literally talking about all marbles everywhere.

John 12:32 needs to be taken in context with the rest of the Gospel. Christ, in John 6:44, clearly states that only those the Father draws will come to him, and then Christ will raise him on the last day: which is exactly what John 12:32 is speaking of. You'd have to be a universalism to maintain that the Father draws every single person- which if I can find even a single mention in the Bible (I can find many) of someone not being drawn- it wouldn't hold water in Biblical context.
Moreover, earlier in 12:20 we see that Gentiles that wanted to listen as well. So now, he's not just addressing Jews anymore, but both Jew and Gentile. "All men" suddenly makes sense again, doesn't it? Both Jew and Gentile.
 

jiggyfly

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Nonsense. People can feel free to go read my debunking of your prooftexting here.
http://www.christian...dpost__p__96232


Considering I've already addressed 3/5 I can address the two I haven't, John 12:32 and Romans 11:32.

Romans 11:32 really can only be understood by reading the whole chapter. Paul is discussing Jew and Gentiles the entire post. When he says "all", he's referring to both Jew and Gentile.
It's like if I'm sorting red and blue marbles and say, "this is too much work, chunk them all in a bag"... I'd be referring to the red and blue marbles, I am not literally talking about all marbles everywhere.

Well, in your mind what is a gentile?
[font="Verdana][size="2"]Gentile; a person of a non-Jewish nation or of non-Jewish faith; especially : a Christian as distinguished from a Jew[/size][/font]
[font="Verdana][size="2"]Now if Paul is talking about Jews and Gentiles that covers the whole human race, so Just like you said Paul is referring to "Jew and Gentile" In Paul"s day if you were not a Jew then you were classified as a Gentile. [/size][/font]Further more the "all" that God shows mercy to is the same "all" that were turned over to disobedience which is the whole human race.



John 12:32 needs to be taken in context with the rest of the Gospel. Christ, in John 6:44, clearly states that only those the Father draws will come to him, and then Christ will raise him on the last day: which is exactly what John 12:32 is speaking of. You'd have to be a universalism to maintain that the Father draws every single person- which if I can find even a single mention in the Bible (I can find many) of someone not being drawn- it wouldn't hold water in Biblical context.
Moreover, earlier in 12:20 we see that Gentiles that wanted to listen as well. So now, he's not just addressing Jews anymore, but both Jew and Gentile. "All men" suddenly makes sense again, doesn't it? Both Jew and Gentile.


Again do you know what Gentile means?


The Greek word used here is pas.
pas
Including all the forms of declension; apparently a primary word; all, any, every, the whole: - all (manner of, means) alway (-s), any (one), X daily, + ever, every (one, way), as many as, + no (-thing), X throughly, whatsoever, whole,

Tis also the same Greek word used in the text you mentioned in chapter 6.
[font="tahoma][size="2"] jiggyfly, on 02 January 2011 - 08:48 PM, said:

Acts 3:21
For he must remain in heaven until the time for the final restoration of all things, as God promised long ago through his prophets.

You realize Peter starts out this sermon with a call to repentance and turning to God, right?

Also, you don't think they spoke in analogies then, just as we do today? Not everything is literal. God will restore everything. New earth. It will be as he wishes it to be (which defines "restore"... Putting it back the way it needs to be). The way it needs to be includes sorting the sheep from the goats[/size][/font]
[font="tahoma][size="2"] [/size][/font]

How is this dealing with the text of Acts 3:21?

So please explain how "repentence " changes the meaning of "the final restoration of all things" or "the times of restitution of all things".


Your rebutal or explanation of the other scriptures reference are even less regarding to text than these so I wont list them here. If you care to try again and actually deal with text then I'm your huckleberry.
 

TexUs

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Further more the "all" that God shows mercy to is the same "all" that were turned over to disobedience which is the whole human race.
Exactly- the human race. Not every person individually. Nothing you said contradicted what I said.
Paul was saying, "Both Jew and Gentile are evil disobeyer. But God has mercy on both of you!"


If I say to employees, "I shall give all of you a bonus". In your world, you'd think I was talking to literally everyone on earth. This is not the case. You must understand audience and context.


The Greek word used here is pas.

So? It means "all" is an accurate translation. Again... so???
You didn't address anything I said.


How is this dealing with the text of Acts 3:21?

So please explain how "repentence " changes the meaning of "the final restoration of all things" or "the times of restitution of all things".

He calls them brothers.
He calls them to repent.
Christ will be sent to those appointed. (Getting the hint so far? Maybe he's only talking to those saved)
All things will be restored, as the prophets said. What did the prophets say? Keep reading, read in context: "The Lord God will raise up for you a prophet like me from your brothers. You shall listen to him in whatever he tells you. And it shall be that every soul who does not listen to that prophet shall be destroyed from the people."


Notice two things from the quoted passage.
1) "will raise up.... from your BROTHERS"- Again, only Christians
2) "every soul who does not listen.... shall be destroyed"- so there's some who will be destroyed, the ones who don't listen (the non Christians).


You'll also notice he's addressing Jews only in this passage (see v12 and v25).


It's a mighty dis-service to the text, when it speaks against "all saved" just a couple verses later, to pull one out of context to say it supports it. Read the context to determine what "all things" are, as I showed you above, and the text becomes clear. If a verse seems to contradict the rest of Scripture, it's probably you that's wrong, not the Bible. So you stop, read the context, understand the audience, and perhaps even look at the Greek if you need to.


You can't understand Harry Potter by reading one line. What do you suppose would be said of you if you based the entire story off selective lines in the book? Would people call you an idiot, and discredit you? When I judge a book by it's back flap or cover and conclude, "I wouldn't like this"- and the person suggesting it to me does, they think less of me. Why? I haven't made an effort to understand it.


How much greater is the error of proof texting when done to the Bible.


Your rebutal or explanation of the other scriptures reference are even less regarding to text than these so I wont list them here.
And yet if my rebutted was even less it should be easy for you to explain, yes? However you thought it harder to do than the above quoted ones.
 

jiggyfly

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Exactly- the human race. Not every person individually. Nothing you said contradicted what I said.
Paul was saying, "Both Jew and Gentile are evil disobeyer. But God has mercy on both of you!"

If I say to employees, "I shall give all of you a bonus". In your world, you'd think I was talking to literally everyone on earth. This is not the case. You must understand audience and context.


[/i]
So? It means "all" is an accurate translation. Again... so???
You didn't address anything I said.


He calls them brothers.
He calls them to repent.
Christ will be sent to those appointed. (Getting the hint so far? Maybe he's only talking to those saved)
All things will be restored, as the prophets said. What did the prophets say? Keep reading, read in context: "The Lord God will raise up for you a prophet like me from your brothers. You shall listen to him in whatever he tells you. And it shall be that every soul who does not listen to that prophet shall be destroyed from the people."

Notice two things from the quoted passage.
1) "will raise up.... from your BROTHERS"- Again, only Christians
2) "every soul who does not listen.... shall be destroyed"- so there's some who will be destroyed, the ones who don't listen (the non Christians).

You'll also notice he's addressing Jews only in this passage (see v12 and v25).

It's a mighty dis-service to the text, when it speaks against "all saved" just a couple verses later, to pull one out of context to say it supports it. Read the context to determine what "all things" are, as I showed you above, and the text becomes clear. If a verse seems to contradict the rest of Scripture, it's probably you that's wrong, not the Bible. So you stop, read the context, understand the audience, and perhaps even look at the Greek if you need to.

You can't understand Harry Potter by reading one line. What do you suppose would be said of you if you based the entire story off selective lines in the book? Would people call you an idiot, and discredit you? When I judge a book by it's back flap or cover and conclude, "I wouldn't like this"- and the person suggesting it to me does, they think less of me. Why? I haven't made an effort to understand it.

How much greater is the error of proof texting when done to the Bible.


And yet if my rebutted was even less it should be easy for you to explain, yes? However you thought it harder to do than the above quoted ones.

Your simply ludicrous, I can explain it but you can't grasp it with a religious mindset.
 

TexUs

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LOL, and just like the other thread you have an inability to deal with Scriptures once you see them in context so you resort to ad hominem logical fallacies.
 

jiggyfly

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Funny because I've commented on all the Scripture you've posted and you... haven't.

Kinda like your commentary here?

[font="tahoma][size="2"]
Romans 11:32 really can only be understood by reading the whole chapter. Paul is discussing Jew and Gentiles the entire post. When he says "all", he's referring to both Jew and Gentile.
It's like if I'm sorting red and blue marbles and say, "this is too much work, chunk them all in a bag"... I'd be referring to the red and blue marbles, I am not literally talking about all marbles everywhere.
[/size][/font]

[font="tahoma] [/font][/color]
[color="#5D5D5D"][font="tahoma][size="2"]You obviously feel like you have the truth concerning the scriptures yet many of your posts like this one reveal something different. The term Jew and Gentile is all inclusive of the human race, if you were not a Jew than you were a Gentile. Now if you would like to go back and make some needful corrections to your old posts then we can continue but if you still don't see the need than I think we ( you and I) are probably finished for the moment. [/size][/font]
 

TexUs

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Well, at least I comment on them.



I know what Jew and Gentile are.
Paul was simply saying it's for both Jew AND Gentile. He doesn't mean every single person.
All without distinction, not all without exception.

Just read the chapter. I strongly feel like you haven't done so. This isn't a hard passage.
 

Excedrin

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That just isn't true.

Deal with these five and then we can go from there.
smile.gif


John 12:32

Acts 3:21

Romans 11:32

Col. 1 :19&20

1 Tim. 4:10
John 12:32 – John 12:48 those who reject Christ…

Acts 3:21 - Restore is to make like new. Revelation 21:1

Romans 11:32 - Romans 11:32 “that he might have mercy upon all.” God made a way to be saved.

Col. 1:19&20 - Col 1:23 says don’t drift away… believer or a non-believer… focused and unfocused.

1 Tim. 4:10 - 1 Tim 2:3-4 “who wants all men to be saved” note it’s a desire not a mandate.

The scripture states conclusively that there are saved people and there are unsaved people. 2 different types….
Matt 13:49
Matt 25:32-46

How does your belief address Matt 25:46?
 

jiggyfly

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John 12:32 – John 12:48 those who reject Christ…

Acts 3:21 - Restore is to make like new. Revelation 21:1

Romans 11:32 - Romans 11:32 “that he might have mercy upon all.” God made a way to be saved.

Col. 1:19&20 - Col 1:23 says don’t drift away… believer or a non-believer… focused and unfocused.

1 Tim. 4:10 - 1 Tim 2:3-4 “who wants all men to be saved” note it’s a desire not a mandate.

The scripture states conclusively that there are saved people and there are unsaved people. 2 different types….
Matt 13:49
Matt 25:32-46

How does your belief address Matt 25:46?

Saved from what?

Well, at least I comment on them.



I know what Jew and Gentile are.
Paul was simply saying it's for both Jew AND Gentile. He doesn't mean every single person.
All without distinction, not all without exception.

Just read the chapter. I strongly feel like you haven't done so. This isn't a hard passage.

I assure you I have read and study the whole chapter and the whole letter for that matter but we disagree on the meaning of "all" here and probably else where too.

We seem to disagree on several things, Christology, Soteriology and Eschatology to name three.
 

TexUs

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I assure you I have read and study the whole chapter and the whole letter for that matter but we disagree on the meaning of "all" here and probably else where too.
So do you suppose Paul had a half-tracked mind, was addressing the difference between Jew and Gentile, suddenly switched courses for ONE verse, and then switched back?
That's laughable. At best.
 

jiggyfly

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So do you suppose Paul had a half-tracked mind, was addressing the difference between Jew and Gentile, suddenly switched courses for ONE verse, and then switched back?
That's laughable. At best.

Is that what you think Paul is addressing in chapter 11, the "difference between Jew and Gentile"? Paul is speaking of God's wonderful salvation for Jew and Gentile.
smile.gif
 

TexUs

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Is that what you think Paul is addressing in chapter 11, the "difference between Jew and Gentile"? Paul is speaking of God's wonderful salvation for Jew and Gentile.
smile.gif
Natural branches vs grafted branches. These are differences.

Answer my question.
 

jiggyfly

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The topic was not the difference between Jew and Gentile, the topic was God's salvation and at any rate your marble story has no basis here.
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