How does one get "in Christ" so that there is definitely no longer an "if"?
Well i dunno, but
confession leads to salvation yeh?
Was anyone described in the OT ever "in Christ"?
I hear that Q a lot, and i'm not sure the narrative could allow that? The OT speaks of
righteous man? And we have...the diff in the way two Righteous Man's were described to maybe guide us there, um, Job and Noah? Both likely recycled? Then there is the Enoch/Noah relationship, which i guess I'm not telling any secrets to say that when one generation
walked with God, and was no more and then the "next generation" finds itself in an Ark built by a...brb, wanna get this right,
Genesis 6:9 Interlinear: These are births of Noah: Noah is a righteous man; perfect he hath been among his generations; with God hath Noah walked habitually.
Ok so Noach
also walked with God, blameless, among his generations which we usually glide over, right, but that is there for a reason too i guess, so anyway imo yes, only Christ had not yet incarnated right--which i will argue Jesus = John Doe all day long, at least for now,
possibly even a composite character even, but i would still weirdly argue for the incarnation of Christ in Jesus, Who died
for my sin; pls don't ask me to splain that tho lol-
-so maybe the narrative or rather dispensation being what it was, that language "in Christ" just wouldn't fit the dispensation? Even though we have plenty of hints of a pre-incarnate Christ Who Was, AM, meaning Christ is Spirit, too, yes?
So i dunno, but i do know the dangers of personifying Spirit? And we don't know all of Christ's Names, surely?