So WHEN does the law become VOID? - Google Search
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Do we then make law void through faith? God forbid: nay, we establish law.
1What shall we say, then? Shall we go on sinning so that grace may increase?
heck no, why do that, when you can just pay a preacher to assure you that you are one of "we," who cannot sin? lol, i mean pls already
no offense bro, sorry,
but not one jot or tittle is not in there for fun ok
if you are confused about keeping the law, just go get in your car and do double the speed limit, and tell us what the cop said when you told him that Jesus said it was ok
WHEN does a law become VOID?
You first have to know WHEN a law IS applicable; and TO WHOM.
WHEN did Mosiac Law APPLY TO a Gentile?
It didn't. So a Mosiac Law can not become VOID to a Gentile.
WHEN prophetic laws ARE FULFILLED, they become VOID.
Now it becomes a bit more complicated ~
Because the LAW giver "IS" the Lord.
And the LAW receiver "IS" people.
However the LAW giver "FULFILLED" prophetic Laws.
Jesus Fulfilled prophetic Laws, ONCE.
He has NO requirement to FULFILL prophetic Laws AGAIN.
But what about the RECEIVER of the LAW?
They ALSO as "INDIVIDUALS" have a part in Prophetic Laws to Fulfill.
NT men, WHO were subject TO Mosiac Law; were learning about Jesus....
Individually they had to DECIDE, IF, they believed Jesus, was their CHRIST MESSIAH, and actually Fuliflling THEIR prophetic Laws.
Some DID, Some DIDN'T.
Thus now it becomes more complicated, per INDIVIDUALS, (ie. Jews) UNDER Mosiac Law.
1) IS this Jesus, their Christ Messiah?
2) DID He fulfill Prophetic Laws?
3) DO Other NON-prophetic Laws still Apply?
AND...DOES every individual Jew, come to the SAME conclusion?
Now MORE complication ~ grafting in the Gentiles.
1) Were they UNDER Mosaic Law? No.
2) Do individual Gentiles believe this Jesus is the Jewish Christ Messiah?
Some did, Some didn't, Some do, Some don't.
So now you have The LAW, WHAT LAW, (Mosaic Law) WHO WAS, WHO IS, subject to those LAW, and which INDIVIDUALS believe;
Jesus is the Jewish Christ Messiah.
Jesus fulfilled Prophetic Laws.
Who, Jew or Gentile Believe this.
And, Jews WHO DO BELIEVE in Jesus,
AND, Believe He fulfilled Prophetic Laws, if they ALSO do or do not "individually" believe
NOT prophetic Laws STILL APPLY to THEM.
( And on the broad scale, Many Jews WHO DO believe IN JESUS, and that He fulfilled Prophetic Laws....DO ALSO BELIEVE, NON-prophetic Laws, STILL APPLY).
And the Gentile? They are an individual mix also. Followers of Jesus' teachings, and believing He IS the Jewish Christ Messiah; DO Believe "HE" fulfilled prophetic Jewish Law....
(And Identify themselves as Christians).
AND? On a BROAD SCALE, ALSO "adopt", a pick and choose, if you will, portions of JEWISH (non-prophetic laws), regularly taught, CHRISTIANS, "are SUBJECT TO".
And another complication ~
Jewish Laws - Are NOT ONLY Directions, and Commands.
Jewish Laws ALSO have a book of CURSES, that began with the Hebrews, and the appointed Priests, so Appointed by God, with Aaron (Moses' brother) being the first, and was to carry on down through Aaron's sons.
Thus being Moses wrote (or his scribes doing the actual writing of what Moses said) the Laws for direction and commands.
And Aaron ( or his scribes ), writing the Curses. The Curses, were basically, the Violation of the Law, (called a SIN), and the PUNISHMENT for the Violation.
(Basically a Book of PENAL laws).
Moses' writing was basically FOR the People to hear and teach his people, family, people who were of his clan.
Aarons' writing was basically FOR the Priests to have, as their guide for Punishments to be handed down BY the Priests.
(As the Priests (before sheriffs, so to speak), were the settlers of disputes of law violaters).
So the complication of Christians, believing Christ Jesus fulfilling prophetic Laws, but ADOPTING, "other" Jewish Laws....particularly "PENAL" law.....
Christians go about teaching, IF a man does not DO "such and such"; He has VIOLATED
"THE LAW", and is thus "COMMITING a VIOLATION, called a SIN".
And the JEWS do the SAME.
So what IS A JEW supposed to DO, when he VIOLATES a JEWISH LAW?
ASK the Lord for FORGIVENESS.
AND what IS a Christian TAUGHT TO DO, when "THEY" violate a Jewish PENAL LAW?
ASK the Lord for FORGIVENESS.
And WHAT did Jesus Teach?
"IF" "anyone", Jew or Gentile, ACCEPTS thee
Lord God Almighty....which is to SAY...
Accepts God, and His Word...
(As Jesus taught, Heartfully BELIEVE in Him, AND the One who Sent Him)...
Then WHAT?
By His Power HE WOULD Forgive ALL of the mans SINS, and unrighteousness.
AND, HE WOULD Convert the man;
Wholly, WHOLE, and sanctified holy.
AND? MORE complication.
About WHAT? UNDERSTANDING.
How does a Christian, who Believes, who Has submitted to the Lord, who Has become Forgiven, WHO has become made WHOLE...
Thereafter SIN?
According to Scripture, He doesn't.
John 3:9
Does the man BECOME SINLESS? No
Only the Lord is SINNLESS. Never having had sin.
Men are born IN SIN. They are NOT, nor can become SINNLESS, while in a natural body.
A man becomes Forgiven, and Converted, Made WHOLLY WHOLE, sanctified AND WHAT?
Acceptable to God.
Acceptable to men? Not always.
And WHO continues to CLAIM, they SIN, and others SIN? Men
And WHO CLAIMS, a converted man IS FREED from Sin, Sins NO MORE? The Lord.
So WHY do Christians CONTINUE to TEACH, Jewish Laws "ABOUT" Behavior, TO Christians?
BECAUSE, Jewish Laws "ABOUT" behavior, ARE " PRECEPTS".
A "precept" IS a general rule "ABOUT" behavior.
Scripture teaches for men TO KNOW the Lords "precepts", regarding behavior. Learn them, meditate on them, incorporate His "precepts" and use them as your guide for your own individual behavior.
AND? While a CONVERTED man IS LEARNING these "precepts", IS HE COMMITTING a SIN, "IF" he flubs up, or hasn't quite mastered the "precepts"? No.
Do Jews teach, it is still a SIN? Yes.
Do MANY Christian Preachers teach, it IS a SIN? Yes.
Do MANY Christian Teach it is a SIN? Yes
Did the Lord teach it is a SIN, unto a Converted man? No.
What does the Scripture teach about a Converted man?
His Sins are forgiven, and Covered, and the mans SINS no more, BECAUSE the Power of the Lord's Spirit KEEPS the man FREED from committing SIN.
AND a man WHO continues to Learn the Lords "precepts" AND "does them"....IS WHAT?
The man IS transforming HIS OWN MIND, TO WHAT? TO BE....Christ-Like.
And WHEN the Lord returns to Gather up His People.....WHAT does He want to Find IN HIS PEOPLE?
A people WHOSE, WHOLE, body, mind, soul, spirit, WHOLLY, WHOLE, and acceptable to Him.
The Conversion of the mans body, soul, spirit....IS accomplished BY the Lord.
The Conversion of the mans MIND, is accomplished BY the man.
HOW?
1) by learning and following the Lords "PRECEPTS"
2) by the power of the Lord IN THE MAN, to help the man Accomplish following His "precepts".
And While the Lords Accomplishment of the body, soul, spirit....IS the mans forever guarantee to be WITH the Lord and the Lord WITH the man....
The accomplishment of a MAN converting his own Mind, and DOING the Lord's "precepts";
THAT MAN; IS called great in the Kingdom of God; BECAUSE that man "by DOING the Lords "precepts"", has accomplished EXALTING and Glorifying the Lord ON EARTH, before OTHER men.
And the Lord SHALL reward the man FOR his Works.
A man WHO IS converted, but is NOT doing the Lords "precepts", is CALLED the Least in the Kingdom of Heaven. And his rewards shall be fewer.
Point being a man who IS Converted;
IS the conversion accomplished By the Lord, and acceptable to Him, for the man to Be forever with Him and acceptable for the man to occupy the Kingdom of the Lord.
The PENAL Laws, DO NOT APPLY.
..because the Lord has Freed the man from Sin.
The Precepts within the laws DO APPLY.
...because the Lord has Prepared the man to Glorify God, before other men, THAT other men MAY Elected to believe and become converted.
And EVERY Converted man, Becomes the Lords People, the Lords Elect, and the Lords INHERITANCE.
And the MISCUNDERSTANDING of man...
Regularly applies.
Did the Lord DESTROY the LAW? No
The Lord FULFILLED the Law.
The Lords FULFILLMENT of the Law, by default, negates the Penal Law.
And It all depends on WHO the individual IS.
IF he IS a man the Lord has Converted...
And IF he Understands WHAT that Conversion means for that specific man.
And IF that mans Understanding IS:
According to Men...
OR
According to the Lord.
Each individual SHOULD KNOW, and DO, by what they believe, and WHY, by their OWN STANDING.
And TYPICALLY "men", simply like to talk about "THE LAW", without having a CLUE, or ability to define what they mean, by the broad term....THE LAW.
God Bless,
Taken