Jesus Is God Of OT -- God Is (.......) and Jesus Is (......) BUT THERE'S ONLY ONE (......)

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Phoneman777

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I didn't say it was incorrect did I? consider this:

God is the source of Life right? therefore a living entity. what are the basic things of the living. look at yourself there is you, there is your presence and there is your word (expression of you ) that goes out from you that you speak in your presence.

all forms of animal and could also be plants (philosophically speaking) have presence and express themselves in their presence. and all three are them to anything not them, just as all three are you, you, your presence, and your word, to anyone not you. therefore in the Almighty's case there is God (the Father) God's Presence (the Holy Spirit) and His Word that goes out from Him in His Presence (made flesh, Jesus the Christ) that is God to anything not God. Jesus says God is a Spirit, so what is of a Spirit is the Word therefore Son of begotten not made that was there in the beginning. when John says:


Joh 1:1  In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 
Joh 1:2  The same was in the beginning with God. 

the Word is God to anything not God which includes all of creation, all of creation knows God through God's Word in God's Presence.
Well, I think this is a bit off topic from the OP, which I don't mind but it's late. My intention was to show that Jesus is the God of the OT so as to hopefully break down barriers erected by those who wish to limit the Bible's application to God's people along the timeline of the faithful.
 

101G

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I think we should expect God to refer to Himself in the singular, seeing that God is singular...there are not a multiplicity of Gods, right? But, again, the Three Divine Persons make up the "ONE" singular God, to which singular nouns and pronouns - masculine nouns and pronouns - refer.
first thanks for the reply. second there is no multiplicity of Gods, which is correct. also there is no such thing as Three Divine Persons that make up the "ONE" singular God. in the Greek it's the G243 allos of oneself, meaning an another of oneself. just as the term "ADAM" which can be translated as "ANOTHER". definition time, ADAM/Man: H120 אָדָם 'adam (aw-dawm') n-m.
ruddy i.e. a human being (an individual or the species, mankind, etc.).
[from H119]
KJV: X another, + hypocrite, + common sort, X low, man (mean, of low degree), person.
Root(s): H119

there it is. "X another" see how the KJV can translate "Adam" ..... "ANOTHER". just as HUMAN Parents have "offspring" or another emanating from them according to the flesh, our Lord according to the Spirit emanated from his ownself, (see Isaiah 63:5), the ordinal "First", the Holy Spirit. understand there is only the HOLY SPIRIT, who is JESUS, ONE PERSON, who is the ordinal "First"/LORD, and the ordinal "Last"/Lord. there is no three divine persons, but only one divine person "diversified" or shared in flesh, which G243 allos perfectly describe.

using Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, G243 Allos expresses, "a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort"
the numerical difference is the ordinal "First" LORD, and the "Another", the ordinal "Last", Lord. see the difference now? that's why in John 14:16 the Lord Jesus said, "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;"
the "ANOTHER" Comforter is the Holy Spirit HIMSELF, for the First comforter was the Lord Jesus himself in flesh, now in a glorified state of the Spirit, (per John 17:4 & 5).

so the plurality of God, and not the multiplicity of God, which is clearly seen in his Diversity as the ordinal ordinal Last, emanating from the ordinal First, this is the numerical difference of the same sort as G243 Allos stated. NOT Three, but one of the same person "diversified".

and thanks for the question.

PICJAG.
 

Cooper

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you should re-read the gospels:


Joh 10:33  The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. 
Joh 10:34  Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? 
Joh 10:35  If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; 
Joh 10:36  Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? 
Joh 10:37  If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. 
Joh 10:38  But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. 


there is more where He speaks of the Son of God in the third person speaking of Himself as He did with the "Son of man" title. but even so He claims His Father in Heaven not an earthy father many times, therefore says He is His Father's Son.

I thought the same as you until I realised the Jews were putting words into his mouth for talking about his Father see John 5:17-18 Jesus answered them, My Father worketh hitherto, and I work. Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.

Jesus spoke of his Father and when he taught the Lord's Prayer he began with the words "Our Father," and I know others called him the Son of God, but if you can show me where Jesus called himself, the "Son of God" I will gladly apologise.
.
 
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Davy

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First thanks for the reply, second, this is what I'm saying, not all words are literal translation. Example, H3068 יְהוָה Yhvah (yeh-vaw') n/p.
from where Jehovah and Yahweh is drived from is not God PERSONAL Name, nor any variation. the tetragrammaton, or I AM is a verb and verbs are not God personal Name. end of story. when Moses asked God for his name, God gave Moses just what he asked for no more nor any less. Moses asked "WHAT" is your name, and NOT "WHO are you in Name, big difference, so No, Jehovah, AKA Yahweh is not God personal name.

thanks for the reply, but none are his Personal name, Yeshua Strong's # is (H3442) is.

PICJAG

My point was that just by saying Jesus points directly to The Father. They cannot be separated in name either.
 
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101G

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My point was that just by saying Jesus points directly to The Father. They cannot be separated in name either.
Amen, there is no seperatation in person. God always had the PERSONAL NAME "JESUS"/YESHUA, but the name was not given in the OT, because God was not seen. only when he Manifested in flesh ... "PERSONALLY" ... then was the Name KNOWN in the EARTH. for God personally wore his Name for all the world to KNOW. for the scriptures are clear, Isaiah 52:6 "Therefore my people shall know my name: therefore they shall know in that day that I am he that doth speak: behold, it is I."

shall is a future tense desigination, and when did God people know? "they shall know in that day that I am he that doth speak: behold, it is I."" "I AM he? BEHOLD IT IS I". lets see that day, John 8:24 "I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins." there it is "I AM he". direct quote.

PICJAG.
 

Phoneman777

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first thanks for the reply. second there is no multiplicity of Gods, which is correct. also there is no such thing as Three Divine Persons that make up the "ONE" singular God. in the Greek it's the G243 allos of oneself, meaning an another of oneself. just as the term "ADAM" which can be translated as "ANOTHER". definition time, ADAM/Man: H120 אָדָם 'adam (aw-dawm') n-m.
ruddy i.e. a human being (an individual or the species, mankind, etc.).
[from H119]
KJV: X another, + hypocrite, + common sort, X low, man (mean, of low degree), person.
Root(s): H119

there it is. "X another" see how the KJV can translate "Adam" ..... "ANOTHER". just as HUMAN Parents have "offspring" or another emanating from them according to the flesh, our Lord according to the Spirit emanated from his ownself, (see Isaiah 63:5), the ordinal "First", the Holy Spirit. understand there is only the HOLY SPIRIT, who is JESUS, ONE PERSON, who is the ordinal "First"/LORD, and the ordinal "Last"/Lord. there is no three divine persons, but only one divine person "diversified" or shared in flesh, which G243 allos perfectly describe.

using Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, G243 Allos expresses, "a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort"
the numerical difference is the ordinal "First" LORD, and the "Another", the ordinal "Last", Lord. see the difference now? that's why in John 14:16 the Lord Jesus said, "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;"
the "ANOTHER" Comforter is the Holy Spirit HIMSELF, for the First comforter was the Lord Jesus himself in flesh, now in a glorified state of the Spirit, (per John 17:4 & 5).

so the plurality of God, and not the multiplicity of God, which is clearly seen in his Diversity as the ordinal ordinal Last, emanating from the ordinal First, this is the numerical difference of the same sort as G243 Allos stated. NOT Three, but one of the same person "diversified".

and thanks for the question.

PICJAG.
So, God split Himself up when Jesus was baptized? The Father remained above, the Holy Spirit descended while the Son stood in the Jordan?
 

101G

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So, God split Himself up when Jesus was baptized? The Father remained above, the Holy Spirit descended while the Son stood in the Jordan?
First Thanks for the reply, and second, these are the kind of answer that gets results. but sorry, ERROR on your part, Have I ever said anything about God splitting himself? no, listen to what I been saying. God "SHARED", not Split, but "SHARED" himself in flesh..... which is the SAME PERSON. Scripture, Philippians 2:6 "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" the term being is present tense, and God is Spirit, and the Spirit is "EQUAL"... "WITH", (NOTICE NOT EQUAL "TO", but WITH, big difference, and if you need futher understanding on "with" just ask). so there is no seperate person as in a split. for no one is Equal "WITH" God but God himself, scripture, Isaiah 40:25 "To whom then will ye liken me, or shall I be equal? saith the Holy One." or Isaiah 46:5 "To whom will ye liken me, and make me equal, and compare me, that we may be like?" see it Now. NO ONE IS EQUAL "TO" GOD, but listen, God is EQUAL "WITH" himself.. :rolleyes: yes, GOD is the G243 ALLOS of himself in flesh. listen to what Phil 2:6 states, "EQUAL WITH. Philippians 2:6 "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" BINGO, "WITH", indicate the same one PERSON here. for the ordinal "First", is the same person who is the ordinal "Last" only "Diversified" or "Shared" in flesh. so at our Lords Baptism God who is the Holy Spirit, Jesus, as the Ordinal "First" appeared, NOT manifested, but appeared in the form of a dove anonited himself with his OWN Spirit, if you think this is strange let hear it from the lips for the Lord Jesus himself. John 17:5 "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was." BINGO, now the Lord Jesus the ordinal "Last" by "Diversity", meaning offspring, MANIFESTED, not appeared, but MANIFESTED in flesh as a man, Per Philippians 2:7 "But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:"
Philippians 2:8 "And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross."
again "BEING" here, indicating present tense, is found to be in flesh as a man.


NOW, NOW, NOW, here come the big LIE that have been told for centuries, and we're going to put an end to it today, "A VOICE FROM HEAVEN". listen, Matthew 3:17 "And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased." the lie is this, "it was the Father's voice from heaven that was speaking", error where in the scripture is says that?. when in fact the bible just say "A VOICE FROM HEAVEN", it didn't say it was the Father's voice, as a matter of fact it didn't say the voice was God's voive at all. this is assumed by what was said. now to anyone, we mean anyone, prove by the word of God that this is the Father voice? never assume anything, but prove all things as 1 Thessalonians 5:21 states. so anyone, prove to us by the scriptures that it was God the Father voice speaking from heaven. again, never assume, just because the voice said, "This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased." that this have to be the Father's voice?, now it may be his words, but lets see if it was his "VOICE"... :)

so if anyone thinks, or believe that that this is the Father's voice from Heaven please post book chapter and verse that says this is the "Father's" voice here at this baptism.

if not, we can prove by the scriptures that a voice spoke from heaven concering the things of God about a "son" was not God's voice... :eek: so book chapter and verse please if you know for a fact that this was the Father's voice.

PICJAG.
 

Joseph77

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Same Page (not same reference) >
footnotes from a Hebraic Bible:

"1 In many translations you see an anti-Torah bias that was never actually written into the manuscripts. The very opposite; what we see over and over again is the fact of the Torah and commandments of YHWH being binding on the life of true covenant believers today and the message that Yahshua taught His disciples. (Math 5:17- 20, 1 Joh 2:3-6, 1Joh 5:2-3)
2 Yahshua did not argue the fact that Satan is the ruler of this world, and that is why true believers are commanded to stay separate and sanctified from the ways of the world (1Joh 2:15-18)"
 

Joseph77

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"For you were once darkness,"
Some are always darkness.

Others ? >>
My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: and I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any one pluck them out of my hand.
 

101G

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"For you were once darkness,"
Some are always darkness.

Others ? >>
My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: and I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any one pluck them out of my hand.

this is not what we asked, post book chapter and verse showing that it was the Father's voice speaking from heaven saying, "this is my beloved Son". this is at the baptism of our Lord. so book chapter and verse please.

PICJAG.
 

101G

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This does not matter in the least.
it is revelant to Matthew 3:17 "And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased."

now quit the vain babbling, and post the scripture that says this is the "Father's Voice" ... PLEASE.

PICJAG.
 

Joseph77

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it is revelant
As already noted, even said outloud, so anyone who can hear can hear, and anyone who cannot hear cannot hear,

Jesus says His Father spoke to Him. (in Perfect Harmony, Testing, Proving, no contradiction) with Everything Revealed in all Scripture.
 

Joseph77

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Hebrews 3:15 As it has been said: "Today, if you hear His ...
biblehub.com/hebrews/3-15.htm
As it is said, "Today, if you hear his voice, do not harden your hearts as they did when they provoked me." NET Bible As it says, "Oh, that today you would listen as he speaks! Do not harden your hearts as in the rebellion."
 

101G

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As already noted, even said outloud, so anyone who can hear can hear, and anyone who cannot hear cannot hear,

Jesus says His Father spoke to Him. (in Perfect Harmony, Testing, Proving, no contradiction) with Everything Revealed in all Scripture.
Hebrews 3:15 As it has been said: "Today, if you hear His ...
biblehub.com/hebrews/3-15.htm
As it is said, "Today, if you hear his voice, do not harden your hearts as they did when they provoked me." NET Bible As it says, "Oh, that today you would listen as he speaks! Do not harden your hearts as in the rebellion."
So we can take this as you have not scripture for this.

Good Day.

PICJAG.
 

Truther

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Here's a 10 Megaton truth bomb for you: (Warning: the collateral damage is going to be devastating)

"Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel (which being interpreted is "God With Us"). Isaiah 7:14 KJV

Unless people back in the day waited until their kids were 33 years old before naming them, the name "God With Us" was given to the baby Jesus decades before His resurrection.
When Jesus was a microscopic cell in Mary's ovaries he was a microscopic God?

Or...

God was in Christ per 1 Cor 5:19?
 

Joseph77

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When Jesus was a microscopic cell in Mary's ovaries he was a microscopic God?

Or...

God was in Christ per 1 Cor 5:19?

How can Eternal, Almighty Creator, fit inside a child's heart ?
He fills the universe and more, He created everything, and is not contained in any ,
yet He may dwell in us....

born again Ekklesia, born of God's Will, not man's will, and not of the flesh, but of His Will...
set apart by Him, for His Own Purpose ... not our own, we are His....