John 1:1 - Jesus is the Father or he's not the one true God?

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Kermos

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"the word" logos "made flesh." in John 1:14. As such, Jesus was the expression of the divine character, "full of grace and truth" John 1:14 cmp Exodus 33:19, and became the "firstborn among many brethren". Romans 8:29. Christ was the result of the word made flesh, not the originator of the divine plan.

F2F

Jesus is YHWH God for the Apostle John wrote "the Word was God" (John 1:1), and Jesus is always God - never stopping being God, and the Word is so very much more than your antichrist limiting Jesus as just "the expression of the divine character".

Jesus is the Word as illuminated in John 1:1-5, John 1:14, and Luke 1:1-2 - The word "Word" defined in scripture.

It is written "Your Word, O YHWH, is everlasting" (Psalm 119:89), so the "Word" mentioned in John 1:1 is eternal, thus uncreated.

"Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile an account of the things accomplished among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and servants of the Word" (Luke 1:1-2).

Luke wrote "eyewitnesses" "of the Word" (Luke 1:2), and the "eyewitnesses" includes people like the Apostle Thomas who humbly acknowledged "My Lord and my God" to to TO Jesus (John 20:28).

Not just "earwitnesses" of the Word, but they were also "eyewitnesses" "of the Word" (Luke 1:2). Luke does specifically declare that they SAW the Word - they saw Jesus for Jesus is the Word of God!

They were "eyewitnesses" of Lord Jesus Christ the Word.

In Luke 1:1-2, the word "Word" is translated from the Greek word "Logos".

Luke further elaborates that the "eyewitnesses" "of the Word" (Luke 1:2) are also "servants of the Word" (Luke 1:2), so the "eyewitnesses" see and hear and serve the Word of God.

The "eyewitnesses" includes people like the Apostle John who illuminates the Word is Jesus with "the Word manifested flesh" (John 1:14).

In John 1:14, the word "Word" is translated from the Greek word "Logos".

Both the Apostle John and Luke illuminate that Jesus is the Word.

Thus John refers to Jesus in John 1:1-5 as the "Word" and "He" and "Him" and "Life" and "Light":


In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being. In Him was life, and the Life was the Light of men. The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it.

In John 1:1-5, the word "Word" is translated from the Greek word "Logos".

The following describes how "Word", "He", "Him", "Life", and "Light" all refer to Jesus.

The first word of John 1:2 is "He", and that "He" is the "Word" in John 1:1, and that "He" in John 1:2 is the "Him" in John 1:3 and John 1:4; moreover, the "Him" in John 1:3 is the "Life" in John 1:4, and the "Him" in John 1:3 is the "Light" in John 1:4 and John 1:5.

Truly, we have a Spiritually accurate linguistic linkage from "Light" in John 1:5 back to "Word" in John 1:1.

Jesus says "While I am in the world, I am the Light of the world" (John 9:5), so we have Jesus being the Light in John 1:4-5 and John 9:5.

God is Light (1 John 1:5), so, clearly, since Jesus is Light, then Jesus is YHWH God.

Jesus says "I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life" (John 14:6), so we have Jesus being the Life in in John 1:4 and John 14:6.

John witnesses that Jesus is the Word with "the Word manifested flesh" (John 1:14), so we have John further identifying Jesus as the Word (Logos).

John knew of the commandant "You shall have no other gods before Me" (Exodus 20:3), and John would not violate the commandment.

Lord Jesus Christ is the Word of God (John 1:1-5, John 1:14), a.k.a. the Logos of Theos, and the Word of God is God for the Apostle proclaims "the Word was God" (John 1:1) which means the Word is the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) because John has no other gods before YHWH God - not even "a god" because "a god" is antichrist.

Jesus, truly God, is the God of Jesus, truly Man; moreover, Jesus, truly God, is God with the Father.

Jesus reveals Himself as truly God and truly Man at His discretion because Jesus Christ is truly Man (Luke 1:26-33) - the Son of Man, and Jesus Christ is truly God (Luke 1:34-35, John 8:58, John 20:28, John 5:18, John 10:30-31) - the Son of God.

THE GREEK WORD THEOS (GOD) EXCLUSIVELY REFERS TO THE ONE TRUE GOD (DEUTERONOMY 6:4) IN THE GOOD SENSE IN THE NEW TESTAMENT, SO "IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD, AND THE WORD WAS WITH GOD, AND THE WORD WAS GOD" (JOHN 1:1) REFERS TO JESUS AS THE ONE TRUE GOD.

Jesus, truly Man, is the firstborn of the Resurrection (Romans 8:29, Colossians 1:15, Revelation 3:14), yet Jesus truly Man existed before He was the firstborn of the Resurrection; therefore, none of these verses indicate that Jesus was created.

The Truth (John 14:6) is that Jesus is God for the ever living Word of God proclaims this Truth "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM" (John 8:58) and the Word of God says "I will settle him in My house and in My kingdom forever, and his throne shall be established forever" (1 Chronicles 17:14), so according to the Word, Lord Jesus existed in eternity past and will exist in eternity future which means the Word is uncreated thus the Word proclaims that the Word is YHWH God for there is NO other that exists in eternity past and future (Isaiah 45:5).

Immanuel (Matthew 1:23 "God with us"), Jesus, is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us (Revelation 1:8) (see see the Truth [John 14:6] that God had me compose in post #283 to expose the deception of tigger 2 and Rich R).
 
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Kermos

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I guess you are so lost in the darkness, i can only but pray that God opens your heart.

@Keiw

You have been exposed as a liar about the Word of God such as your wicked claim that Jesus was created. and here are posts exposing your public deception:

So just like Charles Taze Russell, you, Keiw, you are adding to The Book of Revelation and/or you are subtracting from The Book of Revelation.

The year 1914 is not specified in the Book of Revelation; therefore, the following applies to you as a person who adds to the Book of Revelation:

"I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book; and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his part from the tree of life and from the holy city, which are written in this book" (Revelation 22:18-19).

Therefore, you are an evil source headed for damnation in your current state.

The Truth (John 14:6) is that Jesus is God for the ever living Word of God proclaims this Truth "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM" (John 8:58) and the Word of God says "I will settle him in My house and in My kingdom forever, and his throne shall be established forever" (1 Chronicles 17:14), so according to the Word, Lord Jesus existed in eternity past and will exist in eternity future which means the Word is uncreated thus the Word proclaims that the Word is YHWH God for there is NO other that exists in eternity past and future (Isaiah 45:5).

Immanuel (Matthew 1:23 "God with us"), Jesus, is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us (Revelation 1:8).
 

Jack

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@Keiw

You have been exposed as a liar about the Word of God such as your wicked claim that Jesus was created. and here are posts exposing your public deception:

So just like Charles Taze Russell, you, Keiw, you are adding to The Book of Revelation and/or you are subtracting from The Book of Revelation.

The year 1914 is not specified in the Book of Revelation; therefore, the following applies to you as a person who adds to the Book of Revelation:

"I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book; and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his part from the tree of life and from the holy city, which are written in this book" (Revelation 22:18-19).

Therefore, you are an evil source headed for damnation in your current state.

The Truth (John 14:6) is that Jesus is God for the ever living Word of God proclaims this Truth "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM" (John 8:58) and the Word of God says "I will settle him in My house and in My kingdom forever, and his throne shall be established forever" (1 Chronicles 17:14), so according to the Word, Lord Jesus existed in eternity past and will exist in eternity future which means the Word is uncreated thus the Word proclaims that the Word is YHWH God for there is NO other that exists in eternity past and future (Isaiah 45:5).

Immanuel (Matthew 1:23 "God with us"), Jesus, is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us (Revelation 1:8).
You must have missed the new forum rule against defending our Bible against JW attacks.
 
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face2face

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Jesus is YHWH God for the Apostle John wrote "the Word was God" (John 1:1), and Jesus is always God - never stopping being God, and the Word is so very much more than your antichrist limiting Jesus as just "the expression of the divine character".

Jesus is the Word as illuminated in John 1:1-5, John 1:14, and Luke 1:1-2 - The word "Word" defined in scripture.
That is correct this is what he became through suffering and no Kermos he wasn't that prior to his birth as per Hebrews 5:8

I can see you using the machine gun approach in your posts. It's better for you to misrepresent one verse, than twenty, and it's easier for me to respond if you condense your posts.

Logos is God's divine will by which He creates be it physical or spiritual...you quoted John 1 which is the spiritual creation in Christ Jesus.

This we would agree.
 

face2face

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Jesus, truly Man, is the firstborn of the Resurrection (Romans 8:29, Colossians 1:15, Revelation 3:14), yet Jesus truly Man existed before He was the firstborn of the Resurrection; therefore, none of these verses indicate that Jesus was created.
This is good that you can acknowledge Jesus had a beginning and an end...that's a start.
 

Jack

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 Hebrews 1
6 But when He again brings the firstborn into the world, He says: "Let all the angels of God worship Him."
8 But to the Son He says: "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; A scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your Kingdom.9 You have loved righteousness and hated lawlessness; Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions." 10 And: "You, LORD, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth, And the heavens are the work of Your hands.

Jesus is God! No doubt a bout it!
 
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Keiw

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@Keiw

You have been exposed as a liar about the Word of God such as your wicked claim that Jesus was created. and here are posts exposing your public deception:

So just like Charles Taze Russell, you, Keiw, you are adding to The Book of Revelation and/or you are subtracting from The Book of Revelation.

The year 1914 is not specified in the Book of Revelation; therefore, the following applies to you as a person who adds to the Book of Revelation:

"I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book; and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his part from the tree of life and from the holy city, which are written in this book" (Revelation 22:18-19).

Therefore, you are an evil source headed for damnation in your current state.

The Truth (John 14:6) is that Jesus is God for the ever living Word of God proclaims this Truth "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM" (John 8:58) and the Word of God says "I will settle him in My house and in My kingdom forever, and his throne shall be established forever" (1 Chronicles 17:14), so according to the Word, Lord Jesus existed in eternity past and will exist in eternity future which means the Word is uncreated thus the Word proclaims that the Word is YHWH God for there is NO other that exists in eternity past and future (Isaiah 45:5).

Immanuel (Matthew 1:23 "God with us"), Jesus, is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us (Revelation 1:8).


Its sad, one who wants to love God and do his will wont believe his son over translation errors. You will find out my words are fact, either now or when its to late-your choice.
 
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Kermos

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I wont go into the translation issues with John 8:58 right now but they certainly exist and the rabbit hole only proves that much has been made of the "I am" which is not as clear

F2F

The accuracte translation "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58) is Truth (John 14:6).

"I AM" (ego eimi) is absolutely clear, but you detest "I AM" in the recesses of your heart.

The rabbit hole of error is in your JW thoughts (Jellyfish Worshippers, it looks magnificent floating through the oceans but it falls apart, decays, rots, and stinks in the light on the shore - and you thought JW means Jehovah's Witness - you are certainly not Jesus Worshippers).

"I AM" in John 8:58 is equivalent to "I AM" in Exodus 3:14 according to NT/Septuagint Greek.

People are recorded in Scripture saying "I am", such as the man blind from birth (John 9:1) unto whom Jesus gave sight (John 9:2-7), the man about whom the people were saying things like "Is not this the one who used to sit and beg" (John 9:8) and "This is he" and "No, but he is like him" (John 9:9), and the man previously seen by some others as a beggar repeatedly said "I am the one" (John 9:9).

The beggar in John 9 claims not perpetual existence prior to Abraham; on the other hand, Lord Jesus does.

Truly, Lord Jesus Christ declares His perpetual existence prior to Abraham with "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58).

Nobody recorded in Scripture makes the declaration that Jesus makes about Himself.

Now it's time to dispel with your delusion about Greek translation.

In Greek, the complete John 8:58 reads:

Εἴπεν αὐτοῖς ὁ Ἰησοῦς, Ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι, ἐγώ εἰμι.

IN JOHN 8:58, "ἐγώ εἰμι" TRANSLATES ACCURATELY TO "I AM".

In the Septuagint, the complete Exodus 3:14 reads:

καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεὸς πρὸς Μωυσῆν Ἐγώ εἰµι ὁ ὤν· καὶ εἶπεν Οὕτως ἐρεῖς τοῖς υἱοῖς Ισραηλ Ὁ ὢν ἀπέσταλκέν µε πρὸς ὑµᾶς.

IN EXODUS 3:14, "Ἐγώ εἰµι" TRANSLATES ACCURATELY TO "I AM".

The definitions for these two Greek words:

Strong's Greek: 1473. ἐγώ (egó) -- I (only expressed when emphatic)

Strong's Greek: 1510. εἰμί (eimi) -- I exist, I am

The "Ἐγώ εἰµι" in Exodus 3:14 matches the "ἐγώ εἰμι" in John 8:58.

In John 8:58, Jesus declares Himself to be "I AM the One" (Exodus 3:14, Ἐγώ εἰµι ὁ ὤν" in Septuagint), YHWH God.

The context of Jesus' words are absolutely Spiritually clear that He is YHWH God as previously demonstrated.

"My Lord and my God" testified the Apostle Thomas to Jesus Christ (John 20:28), so Apostolic teaching is that Jesus Christ is YHWH God.

The Truth (John 14:6) is that Jesus is God for the ever living Word of God proclaims this Truth "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM" (John 8:58) and the Word of God says "I will settle him in My house and in My kingdom forever, and his throne shall be established forever" (1 Chronicles 17:14), so according to the Word, Lord Jesus existed in eternity past and will exist in eternity future which means the Word is uncreated thus the Word proclaims that the Word is YHWH God for there is NO other that exists in eternity past and future (Isaiah 45:5).

Immanuel (Matthew 1:23 "God with us"), Jesus, is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us (Revelation 1:8) (see see the Truth [John 14:6] that God had me compose in post #283 to expose the deception of tigger 2 and Rich R).
 

Kermos

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So just to clarify, what you are saying is because Jesus used "I am" you believe this makes Jesus God and on these words hang all the complex formula

F2F

The simple is complex to the simpleton. I find the Lord's Word simply straightforward, but you find Him a complex crook.

Jesus being God is consistent Apostolic testimony.

The Apostle Paul calls Jesus "the great God" (τοῦ μεγάλου Θεοῦ) with "looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of the great God and Savior of us, Christ Jesus" (Titus 2:13).

The Apostle Peter calls Jesus "the God" (τοῦ Θεοῦ) with "Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours by the righteousness of the God of us and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1).

The Apostle Thomas calls Jesus "my God" wirh "My Lord and my God" (John 20:28).

The Apostle Matthew attests that Jesus is "God with us" Immanuel (Matthew 1:23) thus Jesus is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us the children of God (Revelation 1:8).

The Apostle John calls Jesus "the Word" and "God" with "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1).

The Apostle Jesus (Hebrews 3:1) calls Jesus the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) by saying "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58) and "I am with you always, even to the end of the age" (Matthew 28:20) thus declaring Himself eternal, and the One True God (Deuteronomy 6:4) is exclusively eternal; therefore, Jesus declares Himself the One True God, YHWH!

NO SCRIPTURE STATES THAT JESUS WAS CREATED.

Jesus is YHWH God according to consistent Apostolic testimony.

I'd like to bring @Aunty Jane, your fellow JW (Jelly Worshippers, you form an idol with a name patterned after Jesus but your idol really is just jelly formed in your own image and likeness that molds and decays into garbage - and you thought JW means Jehovah's Witness - you are certainly not JW as in Jesus Worshippers because your Jesus is the Word of God adulterated into the word of JW Jelly Worshippers), protests against the above cited Scripture to your attention, and I'm also bringing her into this correspondence.

The Truth (John 14:6) has been proclaimed to you, and in a single post, you expose a multitude of JW people's deception:

The Truth (John 14:6) is that Jesus is God for the ever living Word of God proclaims this Truth "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM" (John 8:58) and the Word of God says "I will settle him in My house and in My kingdom forever, and his throne shall be established forever" (1 Chronicles 17:14), so according to the Word, Lord Jesus existed in eternity past and will exist in eternity future which means the Word is uncreated thus the Word proclaims that the Word is YHWH God for there is NO other that exists in eternity past and future (Isaiah 45:5).

Immanuel (Matthew 1:23 "God with us"), Jesus, is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us (Revelation 1:8) (see see the Truth [John 14:6] that God had me compose in post #283 to expose the deception of tigger 2 and Rich R).
 

Kermos

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Its sad, one who wants to love God and do his will wont believe his son over translation errors. You will find out my words are fact, either now or when its to late-your choice.

@Keiw you and all your JW (Jelly Worshippers, you form an idol with a name patterned after Jesus but your idol really is just jelly formed in your own image and likeness that molds and decays into garbage - and you thought JW means Jehovah's Witness - you are certainly not JW as in Jesus Worshippers because your Jesus is the Word of God adulterated into the word of JW Jelly Worshippers) adulterate the Word of God.

You have been exposed as a liar about the Word of God such as your wicked claim that Jesus was created. and here are posts exposing your public deception:

So just like Charles Taze Russell, you, Keiw, you are adding to The Book of Revelation and/or you are subtracting from The Book of Revelation.

The year 1914 is not specified in the Book of Revelation; therefore, the following applies to you as a person who adds to the Book of Revelation:

"I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book; and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his part from the tree of life and from the holy city, which are written in this book" (Revelation 22:18-19).

Therefore, you are an evil source headed for damnation in your current state.

The Truth (John 14:6) is that Jesus is God for the ever living Word of God proclaims this Truth "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM" (John 8:58) and the Word of God says "I will settle him in My house and in My kingdom forever, and his throne shall be established forever" (1 Chronicles 17:14), so according to the Word, Lord Jesus existed in eternity past and will exist in eternity future which means the Word is uncreated thus the Word proclaims that the Word is YHWH God for there is NO other that exists in eternity past and future (Isaiah 45:5).

Immanuel (Matthew 1:23 "God with us"), Jesus, is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us (Revelation 1:8).
 

face2face

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The accuracte translation "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58) is Truth (John 14:6).

"I AM" (ego eimi) is absolutely clear, but you detest "I AM" in the recesses of your heart.

It appears your approach to expounding the Word is to copy and paste the same regurgitation over and over, as though you have multiple stomachs!

Can you entertain a question which really goes to how you read the Bible and interpret it.

Take John 8:56

When Jesus said these words did he:

1. Believed Abraham went forward in time and actually saw the Masters day, or...
2. Believed Abraham by faith saw the purpose of the Masters life, or...
3 Believed Abraham was given a vision of the Masters life?

When Christ said "day" do you believe

4. This was the literal day in context of John 8 is set?
5. This day represented the entire life of Christ?
6. This day signified the purpose of Christ's coming

If I've missed any other possibilities which you might believe to be true please included them in your response.

To be clear I believe in 2 & 6

Just interested to see if you can speak to the text or not and whether you can put away CTL C & CTL P for a moment?

F2F
 

HIM

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Here is the English-Greek full word-for-word of 2 Peter 1:1:

Simon-Συμεὼν Peter-Πέτρος slave-δοῦλος and-καὶ apostle-ἀπόστολος Jesus-Ἰησοῦ Christ-Χριστοῦ the-Τοῖς precious-ἰσότιμον ours-ἡμῖν obtain-λαχοῦσιν belief-πίστιν in-ἐν righteousness-δικαιοσύνῃ the-τοῦ God-Θεοῦ us-ἡμῶν and-καὶ Savior-Σωτῆρος Jesus-Ἰησοῦ Christ-Χριστοῦ (2 Peter 1:1)

All of these words "God", "Savior", "Jesus", and "Christ" are genitive, singular, and masculine in this passage thus these words after the salutation are to be taken together as a single cohesive unit according to Greek grammar rules, and this unit, Jesus Christ the God and Savior of us, is the object impacting the objects of "faith" (belief) and "righteousness" being applied to the subject of the clause ("To those" is the grammatical subject which is the letter recipients).

The logical "and" in the phrase "the God of us and Savior Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 1:1) is linguistically, logically, and Spiritually tied to Jesus Christ because the words "faith", singular, as well as the word "righteousness", singular, in the phrase "having obtained a faith equally precious with ours in righteousness of" (2 Peter 1:1); therefore, Peter singularly refers to "the God of us" and "Savior" and "Jesus Christ" as One singular.

See that linguistically, "faith" and "righteosness" would need to be plural in order to agree with the subject of "To those", which is plural, in order for "faith" and "righteosness" to be disassociated from Jesus Christ the God and Savior of us which could then lead to legitimate discussion about "the God of us" and "Savior" and "Jesus Christ" to be considered linguistacally in this one single passage for disassociation in the evil manner which you think applies.
Correct Jesus, God, and the personal pronoun ἡμῶν that refers to us in 1 Peter 1:1 is in the genitive case. BUT IT IS TALKING ABOUT THE RIGHTEOUSNESS BEING GOD'S AND JESUS'. The Genitive case in grammar, expresses primarily the thing from which something else proceeds, possessive in a sense. And the conjunctive καὶ makes a distinction between God and Jesus not as you are putting forth. If Jesus was being called God here the case of Jesus and God would not be in the genitive and the conjunctive καὶ would not be necessary. The clause should read as follows:

δικαιοσύνῃ Righteousness
τοῦ of the
θεοῦ God
ἡμῶν Of us
καὶ And
σωτῆρος OF Saviour
Ἰησοῦ Jesus
Χριστοῦ Christ :
 

tigger 2

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Correct Jesus, God, and the personal pronoun ἡμῶν that refers to us in 1 Peter 1:1 is in the genitive case. BUT IT IS TALKING ABOUT THE RIGHTEOUSNESS BEING GOD'S AND JESUS'. The Genitive case in grammar, expresses primarily the thing from which something else proceeds, possessive in a sense. And the conjunctive καὶ makes a distinction between God and Jesus not as you are putting forth. If Jesus was being called God here the case of Jesus and God would not be in the genitive and the conjunctive καὶ would not be necessary. The clause should read as follows:

δικαιοσύνῃ Righteousness
τοῦ of the
θεοῦ God
ἡμῶν Of us
καὶ And
σωτῆρος OF Saviour
Ἰησοῦ Jesus
Χριστοῦ Christ :
..................................................

Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1. These verses are said in some circles to represent the "Granville Sharp Rule" that two nouns connected by kai (Greek, "and") and only the first noun has the definite article, it denotes unity or equality. Thus, in these verses, "the God and Savior Jesus Christ," applies to Christ the titles of both God and Savior. Was this the understanding of the Sahidic Coptic translators?

No. At Titus 2:13 the Sahidic Coptic text reads noute. mn penswthr ihsous pecristos, "God, and our Savior Jesus Christ." Thus, two Persons are in view, not one and the same. The Coptic translators did not know of a "Granville Sharp Rule."

And as for 2 Peter 1:1, the Coptic translators apparently had before them another Greek text, which read "Lord" instead of "God": "Our Lord Jesus Christ, our Savior." (For example, "Lord" instead of "God" is found in the great Greek Codex Sinaiticus of the 4th century, and also the Harclean Syriac version.)

Some scriptures can be rendered in more than one way. The use of Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 is an example. 2 Peter 1:1 has the same problems as found in Titus 2:13 and may honestly be rendered "Simon Peter, a bondservant and Apostle of Jesus Christ: To those to whom there has been allotted the same precious faith as that which is ours through the righteousness of our God and of our Saviour Jesus Christ." (Weymouth NT)

Sometimes, though, translators are unable to find a way to render a passage in the way they really want to. 2 Peter 1:2 is just one of them for most trinitarian translators.

2 Peter 1:2 (parallel usage to that found in 2 Peter 1:1):

“Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord,” - KJV. The same meaning is found in ASV, AMP, BRG, CSB, Darby, DRA, EHV, GNV, GNT, HCSB, ISV, JUB, KJ21, LEB, MEV, Mounce, NAB, NASB, NCB, NET, NIV, NKJV, NMB, NRSV, NTE, REB, RGT, RSV, TLV, VOICE, WEB, YLT.

'Sharp's Rule' Primer
 
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tigger 2

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Kermos said:
The accuracte translation "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM" (John 8:58) is Truth (John 14:6).

"I AM" (ego eimi) is absolutely clear, but you detest "I AM" in the recesses of your heart.

.............................................................

 

tigger 2

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Hebrews 1:8

The 'original copies' of Heb. 1:8 (p46 is the earliest still existent - first to middle part of second century) says Ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ θεὸς εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος. (θεὸς is in its abbreviated form). Yes, literally the oldest NT Greek manuscripts read (like all others): “Toward but the son the throne of you the god into the age of the age.”

There was no punctuation, so it is honestly translated as either: "Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever" OR “God is thy throne for ever and ever” - Dr. James Moffatt's translation (also AT and others).

Even the great NT grammarian A.T. Robertson wrote in his Robertson's Word Pictures of the NT discussing Heb. 1:8:

“It is not certain whether ho theos here is the vocative [‘Thy throne, O God’] .… or ho theos is nominative….(‘God is thy throne’)”

Heb. 1:8 translated from Ps. 45:6

Psalm 45 is celebrating an Israelite king’s marriage, and the psalmist applies the words of Ps. 45:6, 7 literally to an ancient Israelite king. In fact, the trinitarian New American Standard Bible (NASB), Reference Edition, explains in a footnote for Ps. 45:1, “Probably refers to Solomon as a type of Christ.”

So, according to this trinitarian Bible, the words of Ps. 45:6, although figuratively referring to Jesus, were literally applied to an ancient Israelite king (probably King Solomon, it says).

So if Ps. 45:6 is properly translated, “your throne, O God ...” then that ancient Israelite King (Solomon?) was also literally called “O God” (or “O god”?). In fact, the highly trinitarian New American Bible, St. Joseph Edition, 1970, explains in a footnote for this verse:

“The Hebrew king was called ... ‘God,’ not in the polytheistic sense common among the ancient

pagans, but as meaning ‘godlike’ or ‘taking the place of God’.”

The trinitarian Easy-to-read-Version also says in a footnote for this passage:

God .... here the writer might be using the word ‘God’ as a title for the king.” (Cf. NIV Study Bible f.n. for Pss. 45:6 and 82:1, 6.)

If we can find a few trinitarian-translated Bibles which translate Ps. 45:6 in a non-trinitarian way, we really shouldn't accept it (also Heb. 1:8 - see post above) as actual trinity evidence.

The RSV renders it as “Your Divine throne” and a footnote provides this alternate

reading: “Or ‘your throne is a throne of God.’”

The NEB says: “Your throne is like God’s throne.”

The Holy Scriptures (JPS version) says: “Thy throne given of God.”

The Bible in Living English (Byington) says: “God is your throne.”

The Good News Bible (GNB), a very trinitarian paraphrase Bible, renders it: “The kingdom

that God has given you will last forever and ever.”

The REB has: “God has enthroned you for all eternity.”

And the NJB gives us: “your throne is from God.”

We also see the following statement by respected trinitarian scholars in a footnote for this passage:

45:6 O God. Possibly the king’s throne is called God’s throne because he is God’s appointed regent. But it is also possible that the king himself is addressed as ‘god.’ - Ps. 45:6 f.n. in the NIV Study Bible.

In addition to the above renderings by many respected translators (most of whom are trinitarian), we have the statement by perhaps the greatest scholar of Biblical Hebrew, H. F. W. Gesenius. In his famous and highly respected Hebrew and Chaldee Lexicon to the Old Testament Gesenius renders Ps. 45:6, “thy throne shall be a divine throne.”

Why is Heb. 1:8 so often presented as proof of Jesus being God? Have so many trinitarians really not seen the numerous alternative translations and interpretations of this scripture? At the very least these alternatives should be admitted by them (but seldom are).

It shows a desperation to find evidence for their conclusion.
 
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Keiw

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@Keiw you and all your JW (Jelly Worshippers, you form an idol with a name patterned after Jesus but your idol really is just jelly formed in your own image and likeness that molds and decays into garbage - and you thought JW means Jehovah's Witness - you are certainly not JW as in Jesus Worshippers because your Jesus is the Word of God adulterated into the word of JW Jelly Worshippers) adulterate the Word of God.

You have been exposed as a liar about the Word of God such as your wicked claim that Jesus was created. and here are posts exposing your public deception:

So just like Charles Taze Russell, you, Keiw, you are adding to The Book of Revelation and/or you are subtracting from The Book of Revelation.

The year 1914 is not specified in the Book of Revelation; therefore, the following applies to you as a person who adds to the Book of Revelation:

"I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book; and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his part from the tree of life and from the holy city, which are written in this book" (Revelation 22:18-19).

Therefore, you are an evil source headed for damnation in your current state.

The Truth (John 14:6) is that Jesus is God for the ever living Word of God proclaims this Truth "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM" (John 8:58) and the Word of God says "I will settle him in My house and in My kingdom forever, and his throne shall be established forever" (1 Chronicles 17:14), so according to the Word, Lord Jesus existed in eternity past and will exist in eternity future which means the Word is uncreated thus the Word proclaims that the Word is YHWH God for there is NO other that exists in eternity past and future (Isaiah 45:5).

Immanuel (Matthew 1:23 "God with us"), Jesus, is truly Almighty God, YHWH, with us (Revelation 1:8).
The words of Jesus-- John 17:3--This means eternal life, their knowing you(Father) THE ONLY TRUE GOD and the one whom you sent forth Christ Jesus.
Believe Jesus, you must make the choice.
 

Jack

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The words of Jesus-- John 17:3--This means eternal life, their knowing you(Father) THE ONLY TRUE GOD and the one whom you sent forth Christ Jesus.
Believe Jesus, you must make the choice.
Hebrews 1
6 But when He again brings the firstborn into the world, He says: "Let all the angels of God worship Him."
8 But to the Son He says: "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; A scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your Kingdom.
9 You have loved righteousness and hated lawlessness; Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions."
10 And: "You, LORD, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth, And the heavens are the work of Your hands.

Oh yeah, the Son is God!
 
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Wrangler

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Oh yeah, the Son is God!
It's awesome how you ignore v5, which embraces adoptionism. God adopted Jesus as his son and us too. This is why the verse says "today" you have become my son. This was written after the resurrection, AFTER Jesus submitted to the will of his God, obedient onto death. Death is an act impossible for an eternal God.

This is how we KNOW Jesus is not God, he died.
 

HIM

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..................................................

Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1. These verses are said in some circles to represent the "Granville Sharp Rule" that two nouns connected by kai (Greek, "and") and only the first noun has the definite article, it denotes unity or equality. Thus, in these verses, "the God and Savior Jesus Christ," applies to Christ the titles of both God and Savior. Was this the understanding of the Sahidic Coptic translators?

No. At Titus 2:13 the Sahidic Coptic text reads noute. mn penswthr ihsous pecristos, "God, and our Savior Jesus Christ." Thus, two Persons are in view, not one and the same. The Coptic translators did not know of a "Granville Sharp Rule."

And as for 2 Peter 1:1, the Coptic translators apparently had before them another Greek text, which read "Lord" instead of "God": "Our Lord Jesus Christ, our Savior." (For example, "Lord" instead of "God" is found in the great Greek Codex Sinaiticus of the 4th century, and also the Harclean Syriac version.)

Some scriptures can be rendered in more than one way. The use of Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 is an example. 2 Peter 1:1 has the same problems as found in Titus 2:13 and may honestly be rendered "Simon Peter, a bondservant and Apostle of Jesus Christ: To those to whom there has been allotted the same precious faith as that which is ours through the righteousness of our God and of our Saviour Jesus Christ." (Weymouth NT)

Sometimes, though, translators are unable to find a way to render a passage in the way they really want to. 2 Peter 1:2 is just one of them for most trinitarian translators.

2 Peter 1:2 (parallel usage to that found in 2 Peter 1:1):

“Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord,” - KJV. The same meaning is found in ASV, AMP, BRG, CSB, Darby, DRA, EHV, GNV, GNT, HCSB, ISV, JUB, KJ21, LEB, MEV, Mounce, NAB, NASB, NCB, NET, NIV, NKJV, NMB, NRSV, NTE, REB, RGT, RSV, TLV, VOICE, WEB, YLT.

'Sharp's Rule' Primer
And Sharp's rule wouldn't apply when context to what we are discussing has already been established in chapter one in Titus and then again a distinction is made between God and Christ in chapter three. We highlighted in bold the words the apply so as no one misses them.

(Titus 1:1 [KJV])
Paul, a servant of God, and an apostle of Jesus Christ, according to the faith of God's elect, and the acknowledging of the truth which is after godliness;

(Titus 1:2 [KJV])
In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began;

(Titus 1:3 [KJV])
But hath in due times manifested his word through preaching, which is committed unto me according to the commandment of God our Saviour;

(Titus 1:4 [KJV])
To Titus, mine own son after the common faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ our Saviour.


(Titus 3:4 [KJV])
But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared,

(Titus 3:5 [KJV])
Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;

(Titus 3:6 [KJV])
Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;
 
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HIM

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..................................................

Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1. These verses are said in some circles to represent the "Granville Sharp Rule" that two nouns connected by kai (Greek, "and") and only the first noun has the definite article, it denotes unity or equality. Thus, in these verses, "the God and Savior Jesus Christ," applies to Christ the titles of both God and Savior. Was this the understanding of the Sahidic Coptic translators?

No. At Titus 2:13 the Sahidic Coptic text reads noute. mn penswthr ihsous pecristos, "God, and our Savior Jesus Christ." Thus, two Persons are in view, not one and the same. The Coptic translators did not know of a "Granville Sharp Rule."

And as for 2 Peter 1:1, the Coptic translators apparently had before them another Greek text, which read "Lord" instead of "God": "Our Lord Jesus Christ, our Savior." (For example, "Lord" instead of "God" is found in the great Greek Codex Sinaiticus of the 4th century, and also the Harclean Syriac version.)

Some scriptures can be rendered in more than one way. The use of Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 is an example. 2 Peter 1:1 has the same problems as found in Titus 2:13 and may honestly be rendered "Simon Peter, a bondservant and Apostle of Jesus Christ: To those to whom there has been allotted the same precious faith as that which is ours through the righteousness of our God and of our Saviour Jesus Christ." (Weymouth NT)

Sometimes, though, translators are unable to find a way to render a passage in the way they really want to. 2 Peter 1:2 is just one of them for most trinitarian translators.

2 Peter 1:2 (parallel usage to that found in 2 Peter 1:1):

“Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord,” - KJV. The same meaning is found in ASV, AMP, BRG, CSB, Darby, DRA, EHV, GNV, GNT, HCSB, ISV, JUB, KJ21, LEB, MEV, Mounce, NAB, NASB, NCB, NET, NIV, NKJV, NMB, NRSV, NTE, REB, RGT, RSV, TLV, VOICE, WEB, YLT.

'Sharp's Rule' Primer
One more thing in respect to Titus 2:13. And that would be context and sentence structure. It is the Glory of the God that is appearing. And that Glory would be the Savior of us Jesus Christ.

May the Lord our God continue to bless us in all His Way Jesus Christ our Lord.

(Titus 2:13 [TRi])
προσδεχόμενοι Awaiting
τὴν The
μακαρίαν Blessed
ἐλπίδα Hope
καὶ And
ἐπιφάνειαν Appearing
τῆς Of The
δόξης Glory
τοῦ μεγάλου of the Great
θεοῦ God
καὶ And
σωτῆρος Saviour
ἡμῶν Of Us
Ἰησοῦ Jesus
Χριστοῦ Christ;
 
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