Premil point of view has to twist/wrest 2 Peter 3 to make it fit that theory. And it has to talk itself out of common sense. In 2 Peter 3 the days of Noah (flood/wrath) are explicitly set forth as an example of how it will be at the coming of Christ, just as Jesus also said His coming would be "as the days of Noah". First the preaching/witnessing that Noah was doing, and then wrath/judgment came. How was it in general in the days of Noah....were they idyllic years or was there so much sin/iniquity that God regretted creating man? Which of course was the reason for the wrath/flood being poured out. upon the earth. Why would the Lord burn up the earth at the end of a thousand idyllic years of His rule? He only judges in full blown wrath to destroy once transgression has come to the full....as Daniel mentions, and like it was when He used Israel to destroy the Canaanites and told them to wait until their iniquity was fully ripe (words to that effect)....filling up the cup of His wrath, as Mystery Babylon is another example of this pattern.
First of all the world is not going to literally burn up to begin with, nor is the universe going to explode. Second of all, not all Premils agree 2 Peter 3:10-12 is meaning some 1K years after Christ has returned. I certainly don't agree with that. IOW, the same day of the Lord and the timing of it meant in 1 Thessalonians 5:2 is the same one meant in 2 Peter 3:10-12.
Not even these same Premils think 1 Thessalonians 5:2 is meaning some 1K years after Christ has returned. And that they should keep in mind that it is absurd that the DOTL comes as a thief in the night 2 different times separated by 1K years. Total nonsense that the DOTL and it's timing in 1 Thessalonians 5:2 is not the same DOTL and it's timing in 2 Peter 3:10-12.
And besides, we end up with even more nonsense, that once Christ returns that this does not begin equaling this at the time---wherein dwelleth righteousness.
Are these Premils in question seriously going to have us believe there will be zero righteousness dwelling upon the earth once Christ returns? Especially the fact the beast and fp would be in the LOF and satan would be in the pit, per the Preml reading of things. And that Christ and His resurrected saints would be governing the entire planet? But that doesn't equal wherein dwelleth righteousness?
And guess what? You can't have a place wherein dwelleth righteousness without this--new heavens and a new earth
Therefore, even though I'm Premil, my position is that the NHNE are ushered in at the beginning of the millennium that follows Christ's return, and that the millennium is the 1st 1K years of the everlasting NHNE. Either that or Amil is the correct position not Premil. Except there is no way I think Amil is the correct position, nor do I think it is reasonable to place 2 Peter 3:10-12 some 1K years after 1 Thessalonians 5:2 is meaning. What's left then as an option if not what I proposed? Is there a 4th option, or maybe even a 5th option? So on and so on.
These same Premils make the exact same mistake Pretribbers do, except these Premils, a lot of them are post trib. Just like Pretribbers do, where they instist the DOTL and the timing of it in 1 Thessalonians 5:2 is meaning at the beginning of great tribulation, thus does not equal the DOTL and the timing of the one meant in 2 Peter 3:10-12, these other Premils are doing something just as absurd. Where I already explained that earlier.
Revelation 19:7 Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and
his wife hath made herself ready .
Revelation 21:2 And I John saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down from God out of heaven, prepared as
a bride adorned for her husband
2 questions need to be asked here. Because, obviously, if wedding imagery is being used, it has to match what a literal wedding in the real world might look like.
1) What does it mean when a wife has made herself ready?
2) Once a wife has made herself ready, when is she then adorned for her husband?
In the real world pertaining to a wedding, is there a huge gap between 1) and 2)? Like maybe years or even decades? That years or decades later after one's wife has made herself ready, she is then adorned for her husband? BTW, I'm not asking these things because I don't know the answers. I'm asking these things that these other Premils should be asking themselves, and then being intellectually honest and not prideful instead, by then admitting that maybe they have a few things amiss here. A few things that are not adding up.