Made of Show of Them Openly

[Johann]

He , Christ, "God in the Flesh".... 1 Timothy 3:16, had the "Divine Nature"

Jesus said..."i and my Father are ONE".

Jesus said..>"if you've seen me, you've SEEN the FATHER"...

He is talking to the people who are on earth with Him.

"I and my Father, are ONE"......is not Christ saying..... "im adamic", like "fallen adam" unless God is "adamic"

face2face, ....Maybe you have also been taught that God is "Adamic" like fallen Adam #1.

DITTO! The Divine nature of Christ Jesus!

 

[Johann]

You didn't answer my question

How are your sins represented in his body?

@Johann - can you see the issue here?

I'll keep pursuing this line of questioning as I believe Christians actually dont know the mechanics of how God overcame the Law of Sin and Death in His Son.

F2F

Problem here is you believe that our Second Adam had a "nature" like the first-and the nature Of Christ Jesus is Divine, holy.

 

[Johann]

How are your sins represented in his body?

You keep on saying-"our sins represented IN His body"-that is not what the text is saying.

 

[Johann]

God raised up a man who had the consequences of sin is his nature (not his sins) i.e Romans 6:23 "The wages of sin is death"

So that's how you view Jesus, a man?

 

[CadyandZoe]

Behold, maybe you have come in late - everyone here agrees emphatically that Jesus was without sin which makes your post redundant.

Did Jesus require saving because his nature was condemned to die!

The answer is yes.

In the days of his flesh, Jesus offered up prayers and supplications, with loud cries and tears, to him who was able to save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverence. Heb 5:7

Lets check this for accuracy!

Is the context right? "In the days of his flesh"
Did he fear death? "with loud cries and tears, to him (Yahweh) who was able to save him from death,"

If I were you, I would be looking for verses that show me Jesus' nature and whether it was the same as yours.

Therefore he (Jesus) had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. Hebrew 2:17

You understand why Paul goes to such lengths to express Jesus being like you in every respect?

Why do you think he does this time and time again?

F2F

I understand what you are saying but we need to be cautious here. If I understand your point, and feel free to correct me if I am wrong, because human beings are subject to aging and entropy, even a sinless human being is subject to death. And because Jesus was a human being, he was subject to the same limitations, futilities and inevitabilities as any other human being. Even if Jesus didn't die on a cross, he was going to die eventually in some fashion, even if he lived to see his 100th birthday. By nature, he was subject to death just like all other human being. And because of this, he needed to be "saved" from the inevitability of death just like any one else.

As I see it, You aren't making a theological point as such; it's simply a matter of physics, chemistry and biology.

That having been said, we move forward with caution, because Paul understands that death isn't only a matter of entropy, In Romans 5, Paul argued that death entered the world because of the sin of Adam. And so, it appears that Paul closely associates death with sin. (Later in Romans 8 he will employ the phrase "sin and death" in his argument concerning those who have their minds set on the flesh rather than set on the spirit.} He also argues that death reigned among human beings, even among those who didn't disobey a direct command of God as Adam did. They all died even though they didn't disobey a direct command of God. Thus, Adam is the prototypical human being.

One could argue that these folks died, not because of what they did, but because of who they were. For this reason, I am not sure I could defend the translation of Hebrews 2:17 that you offered. If Jesus was sinless, and I believe he was, then he wasn't like us in "every respect." While Adam was prototypical of all mankind; Jesus is prototypical of the new man -- the new anthropos. Through Christ we move from the inevitability of death into eternal life. "For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive." 1Corinthians 15:22

Jesus was made of flesh, of course, but "sinful flesh?" Perhaps sinless flesh doesn't need to be saved from sin, but does it need to be saved from entropy? Interesting question.

 

[Johann]

@Johann - can you see the issue here?

Please don't "drag" me into the thread of @Behold-he has answered you biblically, and you don't like what he is conveying to you.
Act_17:29 Then being offspring of God, we ought not to suppose that the Godhead is like gold or silver or stone, engraved by art and the imagination of man.

Rom_1:20 For the unseen things of Him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things made, both His eternal power and Godhead, for them to be without excuse.

Col_2:9 For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily;

2Pe 1:4 by which means He has given to us the very great and precious promises, so that through these you might be partakers of the divine nature, escaping from the corruption in the world by lust.

 

[Behold]

How are your sins represented in his body?

I did answer it.
You just can't understand it.

So, here is a bit more for you.

Jesus is "God" in the "flesh".
Does GOD have an "Adamic" nature?
Nor does Jesus.

And look at this verse again, as it went over your head, the last few times.
Maybe it will land this time.


""""""For we have not a high priest that cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but one that hath been in all points tempted like as we are,YET WITHOUT SIN"""""


Here is another one for you.

In the OT, the High Priest would make atonement for the Jews, once a year.
He would take a LAMB "without spot" or "blemish". And this is a OT representation of the Christ who would come to "take away the sin of the world".
Jesus : is the "Lamb of God", sinless, perfect, who IS the blood atonement for the world.
He is the sinless "lamb", given for YOUR sin..

 

[Johann]

How are your sins represented in his body?

Surely he hath borne our sufferings, and nasah (carried [Vayikra 16:22; Yeshayah 53:12)] our sorrows; yet we did esteem him stricken, [i.e., like a leper is stricken] smitten of G-d, and afflicted [see verse 8 below].

It cannot mean that the Saviour literally took those sicknesses on himself, and became sick in the place of the sick, became a leper in the place of the leper, or was himself possessed with an evil spirit in the place of those who were possessed Mat_8:16,--

but it must mean that he took them away by his power, and, as it were, lifted them up, and removed them.

So when it is said Isa_53:12 that he ‘bare the sins of many,’ it cannot mean literally that he took those sins on himself in any such sense as that he became a sinner,

--this is what you believe--


Peter undoubtedly makes an allusion to this passage Isa_53:12 when he says 1Pe_2:24, ‘Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree’



Matthew Mat_8:17 has translated it by ἔλαβε elabe (“he took”), a word which does not differ in signification essentially from that used by Isaiah. It is almost exactly the same word which is used by Symmachus (ἀνελαβε anelabe).

borne . . . carried = borne the punishment for. See note on Eze_4:4. Mat_8:17. Compare verses: Isa_53:11, Isa_53:12



Hebrew Verb
Qal
Hebrew Perfect
Hebrew Third Person
Hebrew Masculine
Hebrew Singular
Suffix
Hebrew Third Person
Hebrew Masculine
Hebrew Plural

Hope this makes sense.

Strong's Hebrew: 5445. סָבַל (sabal) -- to bear (a heavy load)

 

[marks]

Marks, you are that person who likes to throw stones from the sidelines....that much is clear.

More distasteful posting, do you understand yet why I'm not engaging you?

Much love!

 

[marks]

You keep on saying-"our sins represented IN His body"-that is not what the text is saying.

Exactly. It's a question without an answer. The Bible doesn't speak that way. So the answer will be whatever one wants to say, because, the Bible doesn't speak that way, the questioner does.

Much love!

 

[marks]

Please don't "drag" me into the thread of @Behold-he has answered you biblically, and you don't like what he is conveying to you.
Act_17:29 Then being offspring of God, we ought not to suppose that the Godhead is like gold or silver or stone, engraved by art and the imagination of man.

Rom_1:20 For the unseen things of Him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things made, both His eternal power and Godhead, for them to be without excuse.

Col_2:9 For in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily;

2Pe 1:4 by which means He has given to us the very great and precious promises, so that through these you might be partakers of the divine nature, escaping from the corruption in the world by lust.

Not to mention . . .

John 2:18-21 KJV
18) Then answered the Jews and said unto him, What sign shewest thou unto us, seeing that thou doest these things?
19) Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
20) Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?
21) But he spake of the temple of his body.

Jesus did not have to "wait in the grave" until someone else resurrected Him, "I will raise it up".

Much love!

 

[face2face]

Problem here is you believe that our Second Adam had a "nature" like the first-and the nature Of Christ Jesus is Divine, holy.

The problem is the second Adam is the place where God broke sin's power...for now you dont know how he did that. Jesus was holy in mind not nature - that's a crazy thing to say Johann - why would God put to death His own Divine Nature?

 

[face2face]

I understand what you are saying but we need to be cautious here. If I understand your point, and feel free to correct me if I am wrong, because human beings are subject to aging and entropy, even a sinless human being is subject to death.

I have the utmost respect for you in this post, not because I think you are right, but because you have "thought" about this subject without imposing preconceived beliefs over it.

I've come to the conclusion that most here do not understand what is meant by a person being condemned to die, due to their inherited mortality. They certianly dont understand Christ's true nature, or do they wont to.

And because Jesus was a human being, he was subject to the same limitations, futilities and inevitabilities as any other human being. Even if Jesus didn't die on a cross, he was going to die eventually in some fashion, even if he lived to see his 100th birthday.

Amen!

By nature, he was subject to death just like all other human being.

Now you are sitting within Paul's teaching but as I've said this line of thought will lead you to some challenging doctrinal positions which most will find repulsive...if not blasphemous as you have already seen.

And because of this, he needed to be "saved" from the inevitability of death just like any one else.

Correct - Jesus required redemption from death; death via his nature and death via the cross!

As I see it, You aren't making a theological point as such; it's simply a matter of physics, chemistry and biology.

The Law of sin & death is the result of why we die
1. Inherited mortality
2. Transgression of God's Law
It was required for Jesus to be born into the condemned line of man to enable God to break sins power. ie The Wages of Sin if Death!

That having been said, we move forward with caution, because Paul understands that death isn't only a matter of entropy, In Romans 5, Paul argued that death entered the world because of the sin of Adam. And so, it appears that Paul closely associates death with sin.

I cant believe I am reading this:
Please note @Johann @marks -

Paul uses Sin to mean flesh, he does so in lots of places:

For our sake he (God) made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God. 2 Corinthians 5:21

The question is how did God make Jesus to "be" sin? Jesus had to have a nature which experience the full force of the consequences of sin, in other words he had a condemned nature, one that was weak, can be tempted, experience pain and suffering to its fullness and die.
Only here can God go to war with Sins Power (Heb 2); only here can God have His Victory over the flesh. Crucifying a perfect son blameless is how God was able to rightly remove Sins power!

Now since the children share in blood and flesh, he likewise shared in them, that through death he might destroy the one who has the power of death, that is, the devil, 15and free those who through fear of death had been subject to slavery all their life. Heb 2:14-15

@everyone How was it "through" death God destroyed Sin's Power?

Note: Sin's power in this text is personified! Dont miss that!

(Later in Romans 8 he will employ the phrase "sin and death" in his argument concerning those who have their minds set on the flesh rather than set on the spirit.} He also argues that death reigned among human beings, even among those who didn't disobey a direct command of God as Adam did. They all died even though they didn't disobey a direct command of God. Thus, Adam is the prototypical human being.

Yep.

One could argue that these folks died, not because of what they did, but because of who they were.

Died for two reasons already stated - Physical & Moral corruption!

For this reason, I am not sure I could defend the translation of Hebrews 2:17 that you offered. If Jesus was sinless, and I believe he was, then he wasn't like us in "every respect."

In nature he was like us in every respect - in mind he was without spot and blameless.

While Adam was prototypical of all mankind; Jesus is prototypical of the new man -- the new anthropos. Through Christ we move from the inevitability of death into eternal life. "For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive." 1Corinthians 15:22

Jesus was made of flesh, of course, but "sinful flesh?" Perhaps sinless flesh doesn't need to be saved from sin, but does it need to be saved from entropy? Interesting question.

Please accept my sincere appreciation for this post - in fact, I have decided to step away from some of the other discussions, as I sense the spirit of this post should be built upon. Also, thank you for at least referring to Hebrews 2:14-17 which is a very challenging section for most Christians! Rarely, if ever, are these passages discussed because they teach a nature of Christ which is totally unknown by most Christians.

God bless
F2F

 

[APAK]

Not to mention . . .

John 2:18-21 KJV
18) Then answered the Jews and said unto him, What sign shewest thou unto us, seeing that thou doest these things?
19) Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
20) Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?
21) But he spake of the temple of his body.

Jesus did not have to "wait in the grave" until someone else resurrected Him, "I will raise it up".

Much love!

marks.....seriously?

Jesus did not raise himself from the dead as he was most certainly dead like any human being of a human body. His human spirit departed (separated) from his human physical body for three days. Then, as promised, his Father, God, raised him to life and translated his uncorrupted body into an immortal living spirit body as he then could pass through walls and doors, and travel invisibly and appear or materialize at will.

Remember, that the Father's spirit was indwelt in Christ as he walked and spoke on earth, and many times his Father (His Spirit of power propelled his word(s)) would direct/command Jesus to speak his own exact words and not his own, exactly as he heard them, to others, as the Father God did the same in the OT with some of his angels and prophets to selected people and audiences. The difference though with Christ and his predecessors is that he became the perfect human image of his Father God, executing his word, as God's spirit dwelt within him. He became the epidemy of his Father's word and was called the word of God. A very unique title.

If you do not believe that Jesus truly died on the Cross and was entombed, then we have no hope of salvation - Jesus was a fraud. And you believe and broadcast a serious heresy.

I would reconsider that Jesus actually died and was raise(d) (Greek - 'egeiro' to mean STAND UP) to life immortal, by his Father.

Galatians again restated what the Father, God, did for his Son, and for us.

(Gal 1:1) Greetings from Paul, an apostle. I was chosen to be an apostle, but not by any group or person here on earth. My authority came from none other than Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised Jesus from death. (ERV)

So in (Joh 2:19) Jesus answered, "Destroy this temple and I will build it again in three days (the Father's exact words)." (ERV) These are God's exact words spoken by his Son to the Pharisees.

God was saying he will raise his Son's body (his temple) to life again after he is dead.

You can see the simplicity in both verses of John and Galatians and how they must both be congruent and agree with each other of course?

And then there's another scripture verse that also conforms and agrees on the same message and meaning...

(Act 13:34) God raised Jesus from death. Jesus will never go back to the grave and become dust. So God said, 'I will give you the true and holy promises that I made to David.'

And so God, Jesus' Father made holy promises with King David about his future descendent and his Messiah.

And we both know in our hearts that God is the Father of his Messiah, now don't we? Paul and John would most definitely agree...

One late addition....concerning the TEMPLE of Jesus.

God the Father has zeal for his own house (Psalms 69:9). The Father shall raise his own ‘new’ house as and in his Son. The Father’s word established his temple within Jesus (John 1:14).

The Father’s house is the temple; it is not Jesus’ house. So is Jesus going to raise his own house of worship? Of course not.

Further...more food for thought and heart/spirit
(1Co 3:17) If you destroy God's temple, God will destroy you, because God's temple is holy. You yourselves are God's temple.

 

[face2face]

More distasteful posting, do you understand yet why I'm not engaging you?

Much love!

I call it, as I see it Marks, I'm happy to kick the dust off and move on.

 

[Stumpmaster]

Colossians 2:14-15 KJV
14) Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
15) And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.

Look at the context.

• Buried with Christ in baptism, which baptism is the believer's outward expression of their inward submission to Him.
• Raised with Christ, after being dead in trespasses and sins, having faith that this is possible because of the power of God, as demonstrated in the bodily raising of Christ to physical life from physical death.
• Forgiven, no further debt to pay.
• Free from bondage to the world, the flesh, and the devil who are powerless to negate the satisfying of all God's requirements which Christ achieved on our behalf upon the Cross.
• The Resurrection, Ascension, and Exaltation of Christ are a public announcement of His Victory over His enemies.

Col 2:12-15 And having been buried with Him in baptism, you were raised with Him through your faith in the power of God, who raised Him from the dead. (13) When you were dead in your trespasses and in the uncircumcision of your sinful nature, God made you alive with Christ. He forgave us all our trespasses, (14) having canceled the debt ascribed to us in the decrees that stood against us. He took it away, nailing it to the cross! (15) And having disarmed the powers and authorities, He made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them by the cross.

 

[face2face]

@everyone, so in keeping with the OP I thought we would further build on this principle of God destroying Sin's Power in the body of Jesus Christ, by Apostle Paul's teachings:

And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement. (Rom. 5:11)

You will consistently see Paul use the word "through", as Jesus is the medium upon which God was "in" Christ reconciling the World to Himself. It was, in & through the offering of the Lord's body which is where this atoning work was accomplished.

F2F

 

[face2face]

Here the Apostle Paul draws our attention to the basis of sanctification "By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of THE BODY of Jesus Christ once for all".

Then in Col. 1:21: "And you that were sometime alienated and enemies in your mind by wicked works, yet now hath he reconciled in THE BODY of his flesh through death".

Eph 2:16: "And that he might reconcile both unto God in one BODY by the cross".

1 Peter 2:24: "Who his own self bare our sins in his own BODY on the tree".

1 Cor 10:16: "The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?"

And 11:29: "For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning THE LORD'S BODY".

It is my intention to show/prove the substance of our recent discussions concerning the nature of Christ, as being the knowledge which sits behind the Apostle Paul's words above.

Discerning the work of God in the Lord's Body is essential in understanding how God reconciled His children back to Himself.

I will be speaking to these verses and their context in coming posts.

Happy to read your thoughts.

F2F

 

[keithr]

Colossians 2:14-15 KJV
14) Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
15) And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.

What does this part mean?

Here is Albert Barnes' notes on this verse:

Colossians 2:15
And having spoiled - Plundered as a victorious army does a conquered country. Notes, Col_2:8. The terms used in this verse are all military, and the idea is, that Christ has completely subdued our enemies by his death. A complete victory was achieved by his death, so that every thing is now in subjection to him, and we have nothing to fear.

Principalities and powers - Notes, Eph_1:21; Eph_6:12, note. The “principalities and powers” here referred to, are the formidable enemies that had held man in subjection, and prevented his serving God. There can be no doubt, I think, that the apostle refers to the ranks of fallen, evil spirits which had usurped a dominion over the world, Joh_12:31, note; Eph_2:2, note. The Saviour, by his death, wrested the dominion from them, and seized upon what they had captured as a conqueror seizes upon his prey. Satan and his legions had invaded the earth and drawn its inhabitants into captivity, and subjected them to their evil reign. Christ, by his death. subdues the invaders and recaptures those whom they had subdued.

He made a show of them openly - As a conqueror, returning from a victory, displays in a triumphal procession the kings and princes whom he has taken, and the spoils of victory. This was commonly done when a “triumph” was decreed for a conqueror. On such occasions it sometimes happened that a considerable number of prisoners were led along amidst the scenes of triumph see the notes at 2Co_2:14. Paul says that this was now done “openly” - that is, it was in the face of the whole universe - a grand victory; a glorious triumph over all the powers of hell It does not refer to any public procession or display on the earth; but to the grand victory as achieved in view of the universe, by which Christ, as a conqueror, dragged Satan and his legions at his triumphal car; compare Rom_16:20.

Triumphing over them in it - Margin, or, “himself.” Either “by the cross,” or “by himself.” Or, it may mean, as Rosenmuller suggests, that “God Col_2:12 triumphed over these foes in him; i. e., in Christ. The sense is substantially the same, that this triumph was effected by the atonement made for sin by the Redeemer. See the word “triumph” explained in the Notes on 2Co_2:14. The meaning of all this is, that since Christ has achieved for us such a victory, and has subdued all the foes of man, we should not be led captive, but should regard ourselves as freemen. We should not be made again the slaves of custom, or habit, or ritual observances, or superstitious rites, or anything whatever that has its origin in the kingdom of darkness. We are bound to assert and to use our freedom, and should not allow any hostile power in the form of philosophy or false teaching of any kind, to plunder or “spoil” us; Col_2:8. The Christian is a freeman. His great Captain has subdued all his enemies, and we should not allow them again to set up their dark empire over our souls. The argument of the apostle in these verses Col_2:13-15 is derived from what Christ has done for us. He mentions four things:

(1) He has given us spiritual life.
(2) He has forgiven all our trespasses.
(3) He has blotted out or abolished the “ordinances” that were against us.
(4) He has triumphed over all our foes. From all this he infers (Col_2:16 ff) that we should not be made captive or subdued by any of the rites of superstition, or any of the influences of the kingdom of darkness.

 

[Johann]

of the kingdom of darkness.

Colossians 2:15
Col_2:15. In this difficult verse the meaning of almost every word is disputed. It is therefore imperative to control the exegesis by strict regard to the context.

The main question relates to the character of the principalities and powers. Subordinate questions are raised as to the subject of the sentence and the meaning of ἀπεκδ.

The context before and after (οὖν, Col_2:16) requires us to bring the interpretation into close connexion with the main thought, the abolition of the Law.—ἀπεκδυσάμενος τὰς ἀρχὰς καὶ τὰς ἐξουσίας.

Till recently the principalities and powers have been explained as hostile demoniacal spirits, and this view is held by Meyer, Ellicott, Lightfoot, Oltramare and Weiss.

In its favour is the impression made by the verse that a victory over the powers is spoken of. How far this is so can be determined only by an examination of the terms employed.

Against this view the following objections seem decisive. ἀρχ. κ. ἐξ. occur several times in the Epistle, but nowhere in this sense.

In Eph_6:12 the reference to evil spirits is definitely and repeatedly fixed by the context. This is not so here.

Further, the connexion with the context is difficult to trace. Bengel says: “Qui angelos bonos colebant, iidem malos timebant: neutrum jure”.

Weiss expresses a somewhat similar idea: “It seems that the Colossian theosophists threatened the readers that they would again fall under the power of evil spirits if they did not submit to their discipline”. But not only have we no evidence for this, but this interpretation cuts the nerve of the passage, which is the abolition of the Law by the cross.

Meyer’s view is more relevant: the Law is done away in Christ, and since it is the strength of sin, sin’s power is thus broken, and so is the devil’s power, which is exercised only through sin. Gess interprets that the Law through its curse created separation between men and God, and thus gave a point of support for the dominion of evil spirits. “Of this handwriting have they boasted. Our guilt was their strength. He who sees the handwriting nailed to the cross can mock these foes.”

But these views are read into the passage, and do not lead up to Col_2:16. And where the Jewish Law was absent, as in the heathen world, sin was rampant.

Ellicott and Lightfoot do not attempt to trace a connexion with the context, nor on their view of ἀπεκδ. is one possible. All this strongly suggests that we should give another sense to ἀρχ. κ. ἐξ.

And this is secured if we identify them with ἀρχ. κ. ἐξ. already mentioned (Col_1:16 and Col_2:10). In favour of this are the following considerations: (1) Unless we are warned to the contrary it is natural to keep the same meaning throughout. (2) We thus get a thought that perfectly suits the context. This law that has been abolished was given by angels, its abolition implies their degradation. To them was also subject the whole of the observances of eating, drinking, etc.

(3) It is a powerful polemic against the worship of angels (Col_2:18), which is lost on the other view. In effect Paul says, “You are worshipping angels who were degraded when Christ was crucified”.

We may therefore take ἀρχ. κ. ἐξ, as in the rest of the Epistle, as angelic powers, identical with στοιχεῖα τ. κόσμου, and holding a special relation to the Law. The next question is as to the meaning of ἀπεκδ.

The translation “having put off His body” may be safely set aside, for Paul must have said this if he had meant it. The Greek commentators, followed by Ellicott and Lightfoot, interpret “having put off from Himself”. The word is used in this sense in Col_3:9. They explain that Christ divested Himself of the powers of evil that gathered about Him, since He assumed our humanity with all its temptations. But (apart from the change of subject) the change of metaphor is very awkward from stripping off adversaries, like clothes, to exhibiting and triumphing over them. More cogent is the objection caused by the strangeness of the idea. Christ wore our human nature with its liability to temptation.

But that He wore evil spirits is a different and indeed most objectionable idea. The same translation is adopted by some who take the other view of ἀρχ. κ. ἐξ., and the explanation given is that God in the death of Christ divested Himself of angelic mediators. This is free from the impropriety of the other view, but shares its incongruity of metaphor.

The more usual translation is “spoiled”. The middle can mean “stripped for Himself,” and this again suits either view of ἀρχ. κ. ἐξ. If evil spirits, they are stripped of their dominion; but if angels of the Law, they are despoiled of the dominion they exercise. This view, though stigmatised by Zahn as “an inexcusable caprice,” is probably best. They are fallen potentates. There is no need to worship them, or to fear their vengeance, if their commands are disobeyed. With the true interpretation of this passage, every reason disappears for assuming that Christ is the subject.—ἐδειγμάτισεν ἐν παρρησία. “He made a show of them openly.” No exhibition in disgrace is necessarily implied. The principalities and powers are exhibited in their true position of inferiority, as mediators of an abolished Law and rulers of elements to which Christians have died. ἐν παρ. is not to be translated “boldly,” for courage is not needed to exhibit those who are spoiled. The word is contrasted with “reserve,” and indicates the frank, open exhibition of the angels in their true position when the bond was cancelled and Christ was manifested as the final revelation of God.—θριαμβεύσας. This seems to express most definitely that the ἀρχ. κ. ἐξ. are hostile powers. Alford, referring to 2Co_2:14, says the true victory is our defeat by Him. Findlay thinks the reference in the verb (which is not earlier than Paul) is not to the Roman military triumph, but to the festal procession (θρίαμβος) of the worshippers of Dionysus. In this case God is represented as leading the angels in procession in His honour; in other words, bringing them to acknowledge His greatness and the revelation of Himself in Christ. It is perhaps safest to translate “triumphing over”. This is favoured by other passages in Paul, which imply that the ἀρχ. κ. ἐξ. needed an experience of this kind.—ἐν αὐτῷ may refer to Χριστ. or σταυρ. or χειρόγ. The second is best, for there has been no reference to Christ since Col_2:13, and it is the cancelling of the bond, not the bond itself, that is the cause of the triumph. It is in the death of Christ that this triumph takes place. Zahn explains the passage to mean that God has stripped away the principalities and powers which concealed Him, not from the Jews, to whom He had revealed Himself, but from the heathen world. Thus He has revealed Himself and these apparent deities in their true character. He has triumphed over them in Christ, and led them vanquished in His train. But this was not accomplished on the cross, but through the preaching of the Gospel among the Gentiles, accompanied with such signs and wonders as in the story of the maid with the spirit of divination and the exorcists at Ephesus. But this is not what is required by the argument, which has the Jewish Law in view.
Ex-Greek Testament