MARK 6:3 DID JESUS HAVE BROTHERS AND SISTERS ?

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Marymog

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The point is a woman is a virgin until she has sex. Once she is married she will have sex and will no longer be a virgin.
The point is Scripture only calls her a virgin and does not call ANYONE in the NT her child except Jesus.....You accept the 500 teachings of Protestant men. I accept the 2,000 year teaching of Scripture and The Church.
 

Marymog

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No one is in denial but you who perpetuates the lies of the rcc/the mary-cult.
...and it just does not wash. It is a blatant Lie & one of the many propagated by the Roman Catholic Church creating it's False counterfeit religion.
You are in denial that the word has more than one meaning. I don't deny it has more than one meaning. You loose....again
 

Pearl

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The point is Scripture only calls her a virgin and does not call ANYONE in the NT her child except Jesus.....You accept the 500 teachings of Protestant men. I accept the 2,000 year teaching of Scripture and The Church.
BUT scripture does call Jesus her FIRST BORN. Which implies that she had other children. Don't you 'get' that?
 

Pearl

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The point is Scripture only calls her a virgin and does not call ANYONE in the NT her child except Jesus.....You accept the 500 teachings of Protestant men. I accept the 2,000 year teaching of Scripture and The Church.
Well she was a virgin because at the time she was impregnated by the Holy spirit she was just a young, unmarried teenage girl. But once she was married she would have had a normal sexual relationship with her husband and borne more children. If she refused to have sex with him she would have been unnatural and perhaps ungodly as she refused to submit to her husband's natural desires.
 

tzcho2

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You are in denial that the word has more than one meaning. I don't deny it has more than one meaning. You loose....again
Don't lose your soul.
No Rcc is going to be there standing in your defense in heaven. (there is no purgatory , nor do masses & or hail marys or prayers by relatives at your funeral get you into heaven.
 
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Marymog

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"And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus." (Matthew 1.25)
If you knew Scripture and Jewish history you would know that the “firstborn” were not given the title because there was a “second-born.” They were called “firstborn” at birth. Jesus being “firstborn” does not require that more siblings be born after him.
 

farouk

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If you knew Scripture and Jewish history you would know that the “firstborn” were not given the title because there was a “second-born.” They were called “firstborn” at birth. Jesus being “firstborn” does not require that more siblings be born after him.
What about James?
 
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tzcho2

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If you knew Scripture and Jewish history you would know that the “firstborn” were not given the title because there was a “second-born.” They were called “firstborn” at birth. Jesus being “firstborn” does not require that more siblings be born after him.
Joseph didn't have SEX with his wife Mary, unTIL after Jesus was born.
Ridiculous for you to keep ignoring the word "TIL" that is written in scripture.
Look we know , that if the bible EVEN included the birth certificates of all of Jesus brothers & sisters--- the Roman Catholic Church would have shredded them & called them imposters, because the TRUTH doesn't serve this Counterfeit religion's self-promoting purposes.
The Roman church of Constantine combined paganism with Christianity and the false image of the holy mother is nothing but a make-over of the pagan worship of the sacred female -> the goddess image.
 
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Marymog

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Well she was a virgin because at the time she was impregnated by the Holy spirit she was just a young, unmarried teenage girl. But once she was married she would have had a normal sexual relationship with her husband and borne more children. If she refused to have sex with him she would have been unnatural and perhaps ungodly as she refused to submit to her husband's natural desires.
Where does Scripture say she had normal sexual relationship with her husband? I can't find it....

There was no such thing as engagement in ancient Israel. The text says Mary was “betrothed” or “espoused” (Gr.—emnesteumene), not engaged. Betrothal, in ancient Israel, would be akin to the ratification of a marriage (when a couple exchanges vows in the presence of an official witness of the Church) in Catholic theology. That ratified marriage is then consummated—in the normal course—on the couple’s wedding night. So when Luke 1:27 says Mary was betrothed, it means they were already married at the time of the annunciation. If this were an ordinary marriage, St. Joseph would then have had a husband’s right to the marriage bed—the consummation.

Mary was married to Joseph when she was visited by the angel and the angel told she will bear a child. Mary asked, "How can this be since I don't know man". This simply means she was a virgin WHILE MARRIED.

Soooo your theory that she was unmarried when impregnated by the Holy Spirit is not true.
 

CoreIssue

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By Jewish wedding custom a marriage is a process. It begins at engagement and ends in the wedding chamber.

But legally speaking they are married upon engagement.

With that said Mary remained a virgin until the birth of Jesus. Then she had sex and more children.
 

tzcho2

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Where does Scripture say she had normal sexual relationship with her husband?
I answered that already.
WHY would the BIBLE that is about the Gospel of the Lord JESUS Christ , talk about his mother, the wife of Joseph - having SEX??

Scripture implies that Joseph new her after the birth of her firstborn son, Jesus, but you will continue to act dumb & evasive about that scripture that even a child understands.
 

Marymog

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What about James?
James is described as the son of "Alphaeus" (Matt. 10:3), which would mean this other Mary, whoever she was, was the wife of both Clopas and Alphaeus. However, Alphaeus and Clopas are the same person, since the Aramaic name for Alphaeus could be rendered in Greek either as "Alphaeus" or as "Clopas".

Matt. 27:56 says, "…among whom were Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James and Joseph, and the mother of the sons of Zebedee".

Mark 15:40 states, "There were also women looking on from afar, among whom were Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James the younger and of Joses, and Salome".

Finally, John 19:25 states, "But standing by the cross of Jesus were his mother, and his mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene".

When you compare the different accounts of the crucifixion, they clearly show the mother of James and Joseph to be the wife of Clopas (also called, Alphaeus) – not Mary, the Mother of Jesus. ANY attempt to connect these people as uterine brothers of Jesus are squashed by the Bible.

How do you "like" that @Pearl :rolleyes:
 

Marymog

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Joseph didn't have SEX with his wife Mary, unTIL after Jesus was born.
Ridiculous for you to keep ignoring the word "TIL" that is written in scripture.
Look we know , that if the bible EVEN included the birth certificates of all of Jesus brothers & sisters--- the Roman Catholic Church would have shredded them & called them imposters, because the TRUTH doesn't serve this Counterfeit religion's self-promoting purposes.
The Roman church of Constantine combined paganism with Christianity and the false image of the holy mother is nothing but a make-over of the pagan worship of the sacred female -> the goddess image.
You need to learn Greek....;)
 

Marymog

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I answered that already.
WHY would the BIBLE that is about the Gospel of the Lord JESUS Christ , talk about his mother, the wife of Joseph - having SEX??
It didn't talk about them having sex......That's my point.

Your point is that it did talk about them having sex.....
 

Marymog

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Don't lose your soul.
No Rcc is going to be there standing in your defense in heaven. (there is no purgatory , nor do masses & or hail marys or prayers by relatives at your funeral get you into heaven.
My soul is fine.....Anyone that has the Truth has a clean soul. ;)