Davidpt
Well-Known Member
You deny Christ's first resurrection 2000 years ago. That is blasphemy! You apply to man what pertains to God.
What is more, you add onto Scripture continually. Where is the thousand years mentioned here in any of those passages? Nowhere! You force it into these texts. That is heresy. You are corrupting the Word of God.
How in the world is it blasphemy to logically conclude that the dead that rise first = having part in the first resurrection? It's the same thing as saying, the dead in Christ who rise first have part in the first resurrection, Christ's resurrection. No one is denying that Christ was raised first. Which then obviously means anyone that has part in the 2nd resurrection after the thousand years, do not have part in the first resurrection, Christ's resurrection. Therefore, these shall be judged and sentenced to the LOF, the 2nd death.
Granted, maybe @ewq1938 doesn't see it entirely like I do, I don't know. All I do know is, it would be closer to blasphemy to insist that anyone that has part in the 2nd resurrection after the thousand years, also have part in the first resurrection, Christ's resurrection. If that is not contradictory, then I don't know what is?
The most important resurrection of all, next to Christ's, the bodily resurrection of the saved, Amil has it missing altogether in Revelation 20. It's not there. Apparently, to them a spiritual resurrection pertaining to the here and now was far more important to John than a mere bodily resurrection. Therefore, John neglected to mention the bodily resurrection of the saved in Revelation 20. Good luck getting a spiritual resurrection alone pertaining to the here and now providing the means to live bodily forever. Only a bodily resurrection can accomplish that goal. Except Amil has a bodily resurrection of the saints missing entirely in Revelation 20, like I already said.
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