StanJ said:
of course I did... the red HERE is the link and your answer.
What you came here for is obvious...to sow discord within this community about Bible version.
Thank you for the reply. If you had not identified exactly what it was you had a problem with I would have never ever guessed that it was Mounce’s translation of Matthew 26:17. I had addressed Mt. 26:17 in the KJV & NIV, but I had never addressed Mounce. I really didn’t even know why you had originally given it to me. I already knew the proper translation of Mt 26:17 and I didn’t need Mounce to tell me. So, let’s look at it. Oops, the way it is written at
biblegateway.com it will not allow me to copy and paste it in here.
Anyway, Mounce gives a different translation than the KJV & NIV. Possibly, that is what bothers you about that which I said. Possibly, you do not see any difference in the three translations. I will put the part of the verse that I take issue with from all three:
KJV “Now the first
day of the
feast of unleavened bread”.
NIV “On the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread”.
(The 2011 update changed Feast to Festival).
Mounce “Now on the first day of Unleavened Bread”.
You will notice that KJV/NIV state “the feast of unleavened bread”, but Mounce states “Unleavened Bread”.
In this respect Mounce is correct and KJV/NIV are incorrect. Well, actually Mounce is not 100% correct because the word “bread” does not belong in any of the translations.
Also, the KJV at least italicizes “feast of” to alert the reader that these words were not a part of the Greek text. The NIV does no such favor to us. Instead, they just dogmatically change the Scriptures which is against the command of God.
Here is the problem. During crucifixion week, and every Passover week since Exodus 12, there have been two feasts identified during that week: (1) Passover and (2) the Feast of Unleavened Bread. These two separate and distinct feasts are sometimes referred to as “feasts”, sometimes “unleavened”, sometimes “unleavened bread”. When one of them is identified with these terms, it must be determined from the context which feast is being referred to, either Passover or the Feast of Unleavened Bread. It never refers to both simultaneously or grouped together as one feast that includes both.
Rabbinical Judaism does teach and refer to these two separate and distinct feasts as one long holiday, but the Bible never does. Besides, we don’t care what Rabbinical Judaism teaches, because it did not exist during all biblical times - Genesis to Revelation. Besides, the Jews do not care that Passover was a picture of the sacrifice that our Lord & Savior made, so they have no motivation to be accurate; in fact, I suspect that they are purposefully deceptive about it.
Matthew 26:17 is easy to discern in context which of the two feasts are being referred to. Because at the end of the verse the Passover is mentioned, making it crystal clear that the Passover unleavened feast is being spoken of and not the Feast of Unleavened Bread. But the KJV and NIV translators have corrupted this verse. They added the word “feast” where it does not appear in the Greek texts. I believe they were confused, just as most people are today, they were thinking of the “feast” as one big long 8 day celebration, when it was not at all. Mounce did not make that mistake, they were true to the Greek text with this one word and they did not make it up out of thin air and insert it into the text.
With the word “feast” inserted into the text of the KJV and NIV, it has made this verse contradict itself by pitting the Feast of Unleavened Bread against Passover. It cannot be both, it must be one or the other.
So, why is this important? Because it is impossible to calculate accurately the events of crucifixion week with the corrupting of the text. Because it makes the four gospel contradict one another regarding the events of crucifixion week, when there is no contradiction at all between the four gospels. Because it mixes Rabbinical Judaism teachings (which did not exist in all biblical times) with the teachings of the Bible and those teachings regarding crucifixion week are not compatible. The same way it is not compatible to insert the Gregorian calendar or the Rabbinical Judaism calendar back in time into crucifixion week. Those two, johnny come lately calendars, did not exist during crucifixion week. Therefore, no one can figure things out and they are constantly claiming that the synoptic gospels contradict the gospel of John, when they don’t at all.
This is the short answer.
StanJ said:
Are you two tag teamers that run around different Christian forums spreading your false teachings?
BTW, you report a post that you think is against the rules, by using the REPORT link on the bottom left of that post.
I met sojourner4Christ on this forum and had not known him anywhere else or before. This is the only forum on which I currently write on. Yes, in the past, but not now, I exchanged some emails with him, but his email no longer works and I haven't corresponded with him for over a week. We have our disagreements as well, but have thus far handled them in a respectful fashion. This is why I suggested that we email, instead of airing our disagreements on a forum that has its share of those who delight in un-Christ like behavior and disrespect.
In other words StanJ, you're not being double teamed. sojourner4Christ makes his decisions independent of me and I make mine independent of him. I had no way of knowing that he was going to make the posts that he made, or what type of post he would make. Can we say that for all the others who post on this forum? I don't know and I really don't care. Being tag teamed or double teamed merely means to me that I have more people to have Christian dialogue with.
