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This is what I'm talking about. This is the Christian life. We know we are branches connected to Christ in salvation by the fruit that we bear. Dead branches don't bear fruit. Assurance of salvation comes from seeing Christ in us. That's why we are exhorted to diligently seek to have the qualities of the Spirit. Seeing those qualities and the behavior they produce makes our calling and election sure.
Yes, really. Now show me the specific verse where Jesus said, "whoever is not baptized will not be saved." I'll be waiting.
You proved absolutely nothing and seeking salvation by works while refusing to obey the gospel by choosing to believe the gospel is not obedience. It's UNBELIEF. Romans 10:16 - But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed our report?" The apostle Paul has some very sobering words for those who do not believe the gospel. 2 Corinthians 4:3 - But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost: 4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.
You proved nothing by your false accusations.
You continue to "add works" to the gospel of Christ which is the power of God unto salvation to everyone that BELIEVES.. (Romans 1:16) Believes plus what? Plus nothing. Simply believes. You need to trust in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of your salvation (1 Corinthians 15:1-4) instead of trusting in "water and works" for salvation. (Galatians 1:6-9)
I certainly do, but you obviously don't believe the words of Jesus above. You remain in unbelief.
I only lack faith in what Campbellism teaches (which you represent)`, but not in what Jesus taught.
It's actually YOU who is in unbelief. (2 Corinthians 4:3,4)
For believers AFTER conversion. (Acts 10:43-47)
Be sure to meditate on verse 47 - Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized, who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have? The evidence is overwhelming that these Gentles believed, received the gift of the Holy Spirit, spoke in tongues, magnified God, and were saved and a part of the body of Christ before they were water baptized. Certain Jews may have wanted to forbid them from being baptized because of their unacceptance of the Gentiles, but Peter clearly states that surely no one can refuse. These Gentiles were clearly SAVED BEFORE WATER BAPTISM and the Holy Spirit was proof of this.
You are still yet to show me where Jesus specifically said, "whoever is not baptized will be condemned." Instead, Jesus said, "he who does not believe will be condemned." (Mark 16:16(b); John 3:18)
Salvation by works (your gospel) is disobedience and unbelief. (Romans 4:5-6; Ephesians 2:8,9; Romans 10:16; 2 Corinthians 4:3,4)
I did not say that a genuine believer would refuse the command to be baptized. I did not refuse to be water baptized after my conversion and I can't think of one Christian I know who refused to be water baptized after their conversion either. As I said before, it logically follows that believers get water baptized after they believe and are saved, but if someone is on their death bed and cannot get baptized before death, they are still saved because they believed (John 3:18; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16etc.. ) which is in harmony with Mark 16:16(b)..but he who does not believe will be condemned. *NOWHERE does the Bible say "water baptized or condemned." Deal with it.
Faith that trusts only in Christ for salvation and not in works saves. (Romans 4:5-6; Ephesians 2:8,9) *Not to be confused with what James means by "faith only" - empty profession of faith/dead faith that remains "alone" - barren of works. (James 2:14) You are unable to grasp the difference because of your UNBELIEF. It's not about disobeying Jesus' command to get baptized. It's about not having the opportunity to get baptized after conversion, like the thief on the cross or someone on their death bed in the hospital or someone ready to die on the battle field etc..
I have not refused to obey Jesus' command to get water baptized and I have done the will of the Father in regards to receiving eternal life.
These many people here did not do the will of the Father by refusing to believe in Jesus for salvation. Instead, they were trusting in their works for salvation. *Sound familiar? Jesus NEVER knew them which means they were NEVER saved.
That is slander and that judgment call is well above your pay grade. I do not promote lawlessness and ALL unbelievers will be seen in the eyes of God as "those who work iniquity/practice lawlessness" because they remain in their sins because of their UNBELIEF. You teach salvation by works, contrary to salvation through faith, not works, (Ephesians 2:8,9) so guess where that leaves you?
I don't reject Jesus' commandments. I just put baptism in it's proper place. Subsequent to salvation through believing in Him. (Acts 10:43-47)
No, Ferris does not believe in "lucky repentance". What Ferris believes is you have to be in a state of believing when Christ comes back in order to be saved, not sinless perfection. The epic battle with a besetting sin is not going to keep the believing Christian out of the kingdom. Unbelief is what will keep the 'Christian' out of the kingdom. Only when your sin is the result of a rejection of Christ, a.k.a unbelief, will that sin keep you out of the kingdom. For the believing one, his struggle with sin is covered by the blood he believes and trusts in. Willful, unrepentant, purposeful sin is a sign that a person does not believe and trust in the blood of Christ for the forgiveness of sin. They are an unbeliever, not a struggling believer. That person will not go to the right and into the kingdom at the end of the age.
Jesus mentions "living water" in (John 4:10, 14; 7:37-39) and in John 7:38-39, we read - "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water. But this He spoke concerning the Spirit. *Did you see that?
Bible Highlighter said:
You fail to grasp the real problem here.
Source:
https://www.google.com/search?q=sociopath+loss+of+morality
Source:
MORALITY English Definition and Meaning | Lexico.com
So in your OSAS religion, you don’t seem to seem to care that your religion is amoral in that it is sociopathic?
Sociopaths have a lack of moral sense.
Sociopaths are incapable of incapable of understanding and therefore acting upon moral standards.
Morality is defined as principles concerning the distinction between right and wrong.
In other words, how do you know good from evil?
Is it not by what people do?
How do you know your not in a devil worship religion that simply has the label of Christianity attached to it?
You would not know because you seem to ignore the standard of morality and or the goodness of God.
You would not know because you don’t see the problem in defending sin and evil rather than that which is good.
How do you know the difference between God and the devil?
Is it not by what they do?
How do you know the good guys from the bad guys in a movie, book, or when you turn on the news?
Is it not by what by what people do?
Anyways, as for your misreading or misapplication of 1 John 1:8:
What is helpful in understanding 1 John 1:8 is looking at its immediate context. 1 John 1:10 says if we say we have not sinned. 1 John 1:10 switches gears from 1 John 1:8 in regards to time; John talks about the declaration on committing sin in verse 8 (which is present tense) to a declaration on committing sin being a past declaration (with verse 10). Verse 10 is saying there are people who said they have not sinned (past tense). This is clearly a gnostic belief. Why? Well, most believers today hold to the idea that they have sinned as a part of their old life before coming to Christ (Regardless of whether they are “OSAS,” a “Sin and still be saved” type believer, or a “Conditional Salvationist”). So this clearly is a “gnostic belief” that John was warning the brethren about (See 1 John 2:26). 1 John 1:8 is a present declaration of sin. It is saying if we say we have no sin when we do sin (present tense). This has to be the interpretative understanding of this verse because 1 John 2:4 says if we say we know Him and do not keep His commandments we are a liar and the truth is not in us. The OSAS's interpretation on 1 John 1:8 does not work because it conflicts with a normal reading on 1 John 2:3-4. You cannot always be in sin (breaking God's commands) as a part of 1 John 1:8 and yet also fulfill 1 John 2:3 that says we can have an assurance of knowing Him if we keep His commandments. Especially when 1 John 2:4 says we are a liar and the truth is not in us if we break his commandments. In other words, if the OSAS interpretation on 1 John 1:8 was true, then I would be damned if I do by obeying God's commands (1 John 1:8) and yet I would be damned if I don't by not obeying God's commands (1 John 2:4).
In fact, the New English Translation says this for 1 John 1:8,
"If we say we do not bear the guilt of sin,
we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us."
(1 John 1:8 NET).
In other words, this verse is saying that if a person sins and says they do not bear the guilt of sin (in the sense that they will not have to face any wrath or Judgment from God over their sin) then they would be deceiving themselves and the truth would not be in them. This is exactly what the Eternal Security proposes. They are saying that they do not bear the guilt of any sin (destruction of their soul and body in hell fire) if they do sin because they believe their future sins are paid for by Jesus. They are saying, they do not bear the guilt or the punishment of sin at the final Judgment because of their belief on Jesus. In short, 1 John 1:8 is a denial of the existence of sin on some level. “If we say we have no sin (in the sense that it does not exist) we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.” (1 John 1:8). Christian Scientists think sin is an illusion and does not exist at all. So this verse would apply to them. Eternal Security Proponents and those who deny that “Sin Can Separate a Believer from God” deny the existence of sin partially. They believe sin exists physically but they do not believe sin exists for them on a spiritual level because Jesus has forgiven them of all their sin by their belief on Jesus. In fact, to see just how silly your argument actually is for 1 John 1:8, you would have to believe that you are sinning right now at this very moment in order for such a verse to be true because 1 John 1:8 is speaking in the present tense.
John prescribes that we do not think that sin is an illusion, and we are automatically saved, but John is telling us to "sin not" and go to our advocate Jesus Christ (1 John 2:1), and confess our sins so as to be forgiven of sin and to be cleansed of all unrighteousness (1 John 1:9). How can you confess and be forgiven of sin if all your future sin is paid for? It makes no sense.
You can say that John is talking about a break of fellowship by one's sins and not a loss of salvation, but that would not be consistent with Scripture. 1 John 5:12 says he that has the Son has life, and he that does not have the Son does not have life.
(Continued in my next post):
You said:
You said:
You said:
You fail to grasp the real problem here.
Source:
https://www.google.com/search?q=sociopath+loss+of+morality
Source:
MORALITY English Definition and Meaning | Lexico.com
So in your OSAS religion, you don’t seem to seem to care that your religion is amoral in that it is sociopathic?
Sociopaths have a lack of moral sense.
Sociopaths are incapable of incapable of understanding and therefore acting upon moral standards.
Morality is defined as principles concerning the distinction between right and wrong.
In other words, how do you know good from evil?
Is it not by what people do?
How do you know your not in a devil worship religion that simply has the label of Christianity attached to it?
You would not know because you seem to ignore the standard of morality and or the goodness of God.
You would not know because you don’t see the problem in defending sin and evil rather than that which is good.
How do you know the difference between God and the devil?
Is it not by what they do?
How do you know the good guys from the bad guys in a movie, book, or when you turn on the news?
Is it not by what by what people do?
Anyways, as for your misreading or misapplication of 1 John 1:8:
What is helpful in understanding 1 John 1:8 is looking at its immediate context. 1 John 1:10 says if we say we have not sinned. 1 John 1:10 switches gears from 1 John 1:8 in regards to time; John talks about the declaration on committing sin in verse 8 (which is present tense) to a declaration on committing sin being a past declaration (with verse 10). Verse 10 is saying there are people who said they have not sinned (past tense). This is clearly a gnostic belief. Why? Well, most believers today hold to the idea that they have sinned as a part of their old life before coming to Christ (Regardless of whether they are “OSAS,” a “Sin and still be saved” type believer, or a “Conditional Salvationist”). So this clearly is a “gnostic belief” that John was warning the brethren about (See 1 John 2:26). 1 John 1:8 is a present declaration of sin. It is saying if we say we have no sin when we do sin (present tense). This has to be the interpretative understanding of this verse because 1 John 2:4 says if we say we know Him and do not keep His commandments we are a liar and the truth is not in us. The OSAS's interpretation on 1 John 1:8 does not work because it conflicts with a normal reading on 1 John 2:3-4. You cannot always be in sin (breaking God's commands) as a part of 1 John 1:8 and yet also fulfill 1 John 2:3 that says we can have an assurance of knowing Him if we keep His commandments. Especially when 1 John 2:4 says we are a liar and the truth is not in us if we break his commandments. In other words, if the OSAS interpretation on 1 John 1:8 was true, then I would be damned if I do by obeying God's commands (1 John 1:8) and yet I would be damned if I don't by not obeying God's commands (1 John 2:4).
In fact, the New English Translation says this for 1 John 1:8,
"If we say we do not bear the guilt of sin,
we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us."
(1 John 1:8 NET).
In other words, this verse is saying that if a person sins and says they do not bear the guilt of sin (in the sense that they will not have to face any wrath or Judgment from God over their sin) then they would be deceiving themselves and the truth would not be in them. This is exactly what the Eternal Security proposes. They are saying that they do not bear the guilt of any sin (destruction of their soul and body in hell fire) if they do sin because they believe their future sins are paid for by Jesus. They are saying, they do not bear the guilt or the punishment of sin at the final Judgment because of their belief on Jesus. In short, 1 John 1:8 is a denial of the existence of sin on some level. “If we say we have no sin (in the sense that it does not exist) we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.” (1 John 1:8). Christian Scientists think sin is an illusion and does not exist at all. So this verse would apply to them. Eternal Security Proponents and those who deny that “Sin Can Separate a Believer from God” deny the existence of sin partially. They believe sin exists physically but they do not believe sin exists for them on a spiritual level because Jesus has forgiven them of all their sin by their belief on Jesus. In fact, to see just how silly your argument actually is for 1 John 1:8, you would have to believe that you are sinning right now at this very moment in order for such a verse to be true because 1 John 1:8 is speaking in the present tense.
John prescribes that we do not think that sin is an illusion, and we are automatically saved, but John is telling us to "sin not" and go to our advocate Jesus Christ (1 John 2:1), and confess our sins so as to be forgiven of sin and to be cleansed of all unrighteousness (1 John 1:9). How can you confess and be forgiven of sin if all your future sin is paid for? It makes no sense.
You can say that John is talking about a break of fellowship by one's sins and not a loss of salvation, but that would not be consistent with Scripture. 1 John 5:12 says he that has the Son has life, and he that does not have the Son does not have life.
(Continued in my next post):
Bible Highlighter said:
You said:
You said:
