Re: "How is this not negation??? How is this not right in line with Spinoza's dictum?"
It the attempted negation of a human conduct;
Please show where the attempt is made to negate human conduct. Please contrast this with Spinoza's dictum. I'm not murdering, I'm not stealing. I'm not coveting my neighbor's belongings. Where are these attempts being made to negate my conduct??? The law that says "thou shalt not steal" is irrelevant to everyone who has never stolen anything. It has no power to determine their conduct. It is right in line with their conduct, not to mention the dictum. those who do steal, do so regardless of the law. These are obvious facts that are nowhere contested in the bible.
it is a given because it is extant language which, when spoken, is material sound wave and, when written, is cast in materials like stone or ink on paper.
If you can't comprehend a simple request to support WHY YOU BELIEVE THIS FICTIONAL GOD IS ATTEMPTING TO USE LAW DETERMINISTICALLY, then you are presenting it as a Given. It isn't a Given. This is your assumption. To then pretend that we're all a bunch of morons who don't believe the law even exists in whatever form seems most convenient is patently ridiculous. We're all familiar with the Law being given to Moses. We know the law was given to Moses, or if you prefer to obsess over silly nonsense; the fictional god gave the fictional law to the fictional Moses in the fictional story. Either way, pointing out that the law exists doesn't cut it. Nobody is denying the existence of the law.
though its objective and origin are negative, it, law, is a positive fact.
Again. See above.
Law is an attempt to negate a certain human conduct however,
Well then let's apply this to your human conduct. The law attempts to negate necrophilia. How successful is that law with you? Has it been completely useless in its attempt to negate your conduct, or is it right in line with your conduct? Please apply this example to your thesis. Plug it in, and explain where in the text that law is attempting to determine your behavior.
that attempted negaation is not determination, i.e., language of law is not a determinative agency;
Again, you're the only one making this claim in the first place. No one is arguing otherwise. The texts themselves even point this out. The fictional deity says, "WHEN you transgress my laws...etc."(Joshua 23:16) The fictional deity is under absolutely no delusions that these laws are going to determine their behavior. There isn't a single page in that entire tome that says otherwise. The burden of proof is upon you to provide anything from the bible to support these claims. Where do you see anything in the texts that claim the law determines behavior?
Even when Moses comes down from the Mount, and sees the Israelites worshipping the golden calf, the best thing he can do is to simply smash the tablets into pieces. Do you somehow interpret this to be some way to determine their behavior? Doesn't this actually indicate just the opposite? They're behavior negates the law into a heap of rubble.
it is being-in-itself existing as carved stone or ink and published paper.
Again, no one is disputing the existence of the law. Please try to address what I'm actually posting.
Therefore it is not right in line with Spinoza's dictum because, even though of an essentially negative intent, is not determinative.
This is a pointless tautology. Again, no one else is claiming that the law is determinative. You're the only one making this claim, and the only thing you've provided so far is your own conjecture based upon nothing other than the fact that the law is referred to somewhere in the bible. Again, we're all well aware of the existence of the law in the bible. That's not the point.
just because a given linguistic structure is negative it is not necessarily a determination
WHERE HAVE I EVER CLAIMED IT WAS?????????
the author made which is in turn determinative of the conduct of the Other.
What in the name of Tartarus are you talking about now? Why are you capitalizing "Other"? Is that supposed to be referring to the deity? Is this some sort of reference to a recent M. Night Shama lama ding dong movie? So is it determinative of the conduct of the other, or not? What is your claim, and why? What's your point here? Are you trying to point out that when someone steals, they don't do it because there's a law against stealing, but simply because they need to steal? My suspicion is that you're trying to say that they don't steal, not because there is a law against stealing, but because their ontological disposition prevents them from stealing. Maybe it's a completely different point?
For anyone serious about presenting a cogent argument or thesis, I highly recommend Strunk and White's "The Elements of Style". This tome is indispensable in allowing one to hone their ability to communicate effectively. No one, and I mean no one is impressed by the usage of: awkward adverbs; participial phrases at the beginning of sentences that don't necessarily refer to the grammatical subject; needless words, or qualifiers; overwriting; or overstating, etc.. The elementary rules of usage are notoriously absent from elementary, high school and even college level curriculum today. This is no excuse to ignore them, especially if one is genuinely interested in being understood.
The fact that we're dealing with negation presents obvious problems when one is making positive statements or affirmations concerning this topic. The fact that one's positive statements or affirmations are effectively no different than the law claimed to be an attempt to change human conduct hasn't escaped anyone's notice, and yet this elephant in the room goes ignored as well. You've taken a bit of a cavalier attitude toward the subject which indicates that you're not really all that serious about getting your ideas across.
I am familiar with the position of Spinoza as well as Sartre. I am also familiar with your premise. I have endeavored to point out a quite obvious error that can only come from never bothering to look at the texts themselves. Coincidently, this is precisely why you have made this assertion The fact that you admit it, and don't see why this is relevant, indicates you have conceded the argument without even knowing it.
To then mistakenly assume I must be some rude Christian is yet pointless Ad Hominem. I'm not only not a Christian, I have no doubt that God CAN'T exist. Therefore I'm not even an atheist as atheists never make that claim. Perhaps you may not have noticed that my claim is disturbingly similar to the dictum of Spinoza.
I have repeatedly asked you to supply some sort of argument to support these claims which I have repeatedly addressed, and refuted. This doesn't refute what Spinoza or Sartre are saying in the slightest. It doesn't refute any of the claims you see in their writings. It doesn't even refute a number of your own conclusions. It most definitely refutes your false premise which ultimately seems pointless to begin with. It is completely unnecessary as the texts I have already provided plainly show that they are right in line with the dictum.
Your responses are just a long-winded version of: "No it isn't", followed by the customary repeated assertions which no one else has forgotten.