In Revelation 1:17, and 22:13, Jesus Christ says of Himself, "I am the first and the last". What does He mean by these words? The Unitarian Greek scholar, Dr Joseph Thayer, in his Greek lexicon, says of these words:
"with the article: ὁ πρῶτος καί ὁ ἔσχατος, i. e. the eternal One, Rev.1:17; Rev.2:8; Rev.22:13"
Jesus Christ IS "The Eternal One", which means that He is UNCREATED, and must be Almighty God! Interestingly, in the Greek Version of the OT, the LXX, in Exodus 3:14, which is Spoken by "The Angle of YHWH" (not God the Father), to Moses, it reads, "Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν", "I am The Eternal One". The Hebrew for YHWH is יְהֹוָה, which means "the absolute and unchangeable One, the existing, ever living, as self-consistent"! This is Jesus Christ.
In Revelation 3:14, Jesus says of Himself:
"And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God"
On the word "beginning", ἀρχή, Dr Thayer says, "that by which anything begins to be, the origin, active cause". Which means that Jesus Christ IS The ACTIVE Creator of the entire universe!
In Acts 3:15, we read of Jesus Christ, "And killed the Prince of life, whom God hath raised from the dead; whereof we are witnesses"
The word "Prince" is not right here, the Greek is "ἀρχηγός", which Thayer says means "the author". That the "from Whom all life has its origin", as John says in his Gospel "In Him was life" (1:4)
In Titus 2:13, Paul says of Jesus Christ:
"looking for the blessed hope and appearance of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ"
On this we have another Unitarian Greek scholar, Dr George Winer, who says:
"In the above remarks it was not my intention to deny that, in point of grammar, σωτηρος ημων (our Saviour) may be regarded as a second
predicate, jointly dependent on the article του (the); but the dogmatic conviction derived from Paul's writings that thisapostle cannot have
called Christ the great God induced me to show that thereis no grammatical obstacle to our taking the clause και σω...Χριστoυ (from,'and to Christ') by itself as referring to a second subject" (A Treatise on the Grammar of New Testament Greek, p.162. 1877 edition. - words in brackets are mine)
What Dr Winer is saying here, is, according the the Greek grammar used by Paul here, Jesus Christ is called "The Great God", and "Saviour", One Person, and not two. However, because he was a Unitarian, who denied the Deity of Jesus Christ, his "theology" could not allow him to see Paul calling Jesus Christ, "The Great God"!
In John 1:1, we read; "εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και θεος ην ο λογος"
"In the beginning was The Word, and The Word was with God, and the Word was God"
Here in the first place, "beginning" is not Genesis 1:1, as in the beginning of The Creation, as Creation is only mentioned in John 1:3. This refers to "eternity past", when "The Word", Who is the Lord Jesus Christ, Who "becomes flesh" in John 1:14, has always existed.
When then read that "The Word", was WITH "The God". Here "ο λογος" (the Word) is DISTINCT from "τον θεον" (The God), which is very clearly shown by the use of the Greek preposition, "προς" (with), which actually means, "at the side of, near, towards, in the presense of". Which cannot mean that "The Word" is IDENTICAL to "The God"!
John goes on to say, "και θεος ην ο λογος" (literally, "and God was The Word"). However, because "The Word" here is the subject, and "God" is in the predicate, the order is rightly, "and The Word was God". The predicate is used as a "description" of the subject, that "The Word IS God". However, by very careful Greek grammar, John does not write, "και ο θεος ην ο λογος", repeating the Greek article "ο". This would have made "The Word" and "The God", convertable and IDENTICAL in Person to "The God", in the previous sentence. John is saying here, that "The Word", IS as much as "God", WITH Whom He was!