CoreIssue
Well-Known Member
NIV AND INTERLINEARAs I said, you don't use or give a translation; you quote you.
You?
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NIV AND INTERLINEARAs I said, you don't use or give a translation; you quote you.
Most likely, yes.NIV AND INTERLINEAR
You?
Most likely, yes.
You very well are aware NIV is the king of Dynamic Equivalent.
OK OK ... we all realize the NIV was explicitly MEANT to be 'dynamic', viz. let you hear the Word of God as if you hear your own voice, whereas the KJ was explicitly MEANT to be 'God's Word', viz. meant to let you hear the Word of God, not your own. I'm not talking about accidental mistakes; I'm referring to DELIBERATE CORRUPTIONS WITH THE VIEW TO be 'dynamic equivalent' and be so far from equivalent of God's Word as the devil's lies.And you do realize there is no such thing as a word for word translation. Every Bible is dynamic in varying degrees.
Paraphrases are nonstarters serious Bible student.
The KJV loaded with errors and is written in archaic 1769 English. It is not the1611.
Top linguists rate the NASB and NIV purest translations. Not perfect as there's no such thing as a perfect translation.
OK OK ... we all realize the NIV was explicitly MEANT to be 'dynamic', viz. let you hear the Word of God as if you hear your own voice, whereas the KJ was explicitly MEANT to be 'God's Word', viz. meant to let you hear the Word of God, not your own. I'm not talking about accidental mistakes; I'm referring to DELIBERATE CORRUPTIONS WITH THE VIEW TO the 'dynamic equivalent' so far from equivalent as God's Word of the devil's lies.
Who says the KJV is what you claim?
It is loaded with errors, such as Easter. A deliberate error among many errors.
It is 1759 English.
Meanings of words change over time.
I repeat, there is no such thing as a word for word translation. It is impossible.
The KJV was explicitly written to satisfy the King and to preserve many Catholic errors introduced into the textus receptus by its Catholic priest author.
Say halve of what you say is exaggerated half truths, and the other halve, ice cold, hard, underestimated and underrated .. facts, then still, nothing supports or justifies your preference for or of the NIV.
But now I'll bring into play for my understanding and or rendering of the Scriptures, all manuscripts made accessible through sources whether e.g. Erasmus and Nestle Aland, before making my own conclusions and decisions over any translations. My lifelong Bible study showed to me like to most Christians Protestants and Catholics and even to most non Christians their own study of the Word of God has shown, that Tyndale's English (with all its derived dependent English translations for centuries after), ranks supreme in a class all its own as the best translation(s) of all time and all languages.
..but things suddenly, dramatically and unmissable changed for the worst in the late 20th century!
Ag please, argue for argument's sake. Carry on, but leave me out. Thanks.There are manuscripts far older than those sources.
You are manufacturing your own theology here. But what we find in Scripture is very simple:
1. The Bible clearly states that Christ was resurrected after three day and three nights in the tomb.
2. Christ was resurrected in the same body which was crucified, having the marks of the nails in his hands and feet.
3. At the same time the resurrected body of Christ was a transformed, immortal, glorious body. A "spiritual body" in the sense that the ordinary limitations on human bodies were absent. He could enter rooms without needing to go through doors. And He ascended all the way to Heaven without any difficulty.
4. After the Resurrection/Rapture of the saints, all of God's children will have bodies similar to that of Christ.
But that's not all the saints that will live and die. There are more in MK. But they are not church. They are Israel and Gentiles.
You are manufacturing your own theology here. But what we find in Scripture is very simple:
1. The Bible clearly states that Christ was resurrected after three day and three nights in the tomb.