Salvation is by grace not of works.
Salvation is by grace, not by works of merit. For if one could keep the law perfectly he would have no sin and those who are sinless have no need for grace therefore his reward would be of debt (Romans 4:4) and could boast of his flawless law keeping works. Yet no one's obedience will be perfect leaving them in need of grace.
Paul would not contradict himself by eliminating obedience in Romans 4:5 yet turn right around and require obedience to be justified in Romans 6:17-18. For it is the faith onlyist creating the contradictions. How can Abraham be one who "worketh not" per Romans 4:5 when he DID DO obedient works per Hebrews 11:8,17)? It's is so obvious that Paul is not eliminating obedience in Rom 4:5 but if fiaith oblyist would read the context and stop taking v5 out of context and adding their ideas to it, they could see that Paul was eliminating the work of flawless, perfect law keeping required by the law of Moses for one to be justified by that law......
v1 "
What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather, hath found according to the flesh?" according to the flesh means what did Abraham gain by his own efforts?
Nothing, for he sinned therefore could not be justified by the OT law of Moses which required sinless perfection to be justified.
v2 "
For if Abraham was justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not toward God." if Abraham could be justified by works (keeping the law perfectly) then he could boast of his perfect law keeping. He would not boast towards God but to his own effort in perfect, flawless law keeping.
v3 "
For what saith the scripture? And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned unto him for righteousness." the scriptures do not say Abraham kept the law perfectly therefore boasted of his flawless works but instead Abraham believed God.
v4 "
Now to him that worketh, the reward is not reckoned as of grace, but as of debt." to the one who works and keeps the law perfectly therefore has no sin, then he is not in need of grace but his reward is
owed him for his flawless, perfect law keeping.
v5 "
But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is reckoned for righteousness." it can clearly be seen from the CONTEXT of verses 1-4 that "him that worketh not" is the one who did not work to keep the law flawlessly, perfectly but instead believed.
Therefore "worketh not" does not mean "obeyeth not" for Abraham was one who
did obey (Hebrews 11:8,17). Abraham therefore was not one who tried to gain acceptance with God by perfect flawless law keeping (he "worketh not") but gained acceptance with God by a faithful obedience in obeying God's will.
v6 "
Even as David also pronounceth blessing upon the man, unto whom God reckoneth righteousness apart from works," again, the CONTEXT tells us "apart from works" means apart from flawless, perfect law keeping. Both Abraham and David sinned therefore could not be justified by the OT law that required those flawless works. Then how were they justified apart from doing flawless works? By an
OBEDIENT FAITH.
v7 "
saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, And whose sins are covered." does God unconditionally forgive iniquites? Of course not for Paul already said in Romans 2:4-5 the disobedient, impenitent will be lost. So unto whom does God "reckoneth righteousness apart from flawless works'? The obedient man whose obedient faith repents of his sins.
Paul's point to the Jews in the context was by taking Abraham, the father of the Jews, and show the Jews how to be justified like Abraham and that is by having an obedient faith APART from circumcision, APART from perfect, flawless law keeping. By taking two of the most well known men among the Jews and proving these two men were justified by faith, then the Jews no longer could make an appeal to justification by the OT law nor force the Gentiles in keeping the OT law (Acts 15:1-2) for justification is by obedient faith NOT by flawless, perfect law keeping.