You are not listening to the Scriptures I present. See:
An explanation of simple foreknowledge.
So, God frees the will of all human beings to say yea or nay to the Gospel of salvation when it is preached or taught (Titus 2:11 NIRV), which states, 'God’s grace has now appeared. By his grace, God offers to save all people'. Please tell me where unconditional election is in that verse. The ESV translates as, 'For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people'.
Further evidence of the freed will is implied by the admonitions for people to turn to God. See Prov. 1:23; Isa.31:6; Ezek 14:6; 18:32;
Joel 2:13-14; Matt 18:3; Acts 3:19;
Prov 1:23,Joel 2:28, Ezek 18:27-30, Isa 32:15, Acts 2:36-38,Zech 12:10 ...
The call to repent has a similar connotation:
1 Kings 8:47; Matt 32:1; Mk 1;15; Lk 13:3, 5; Acts 2:38; 17:30). The call to believe has the same implication of the freedom to choose to respond or reject the call. See: 2 Chron 20:20; Isa 43:10;
John 6:29; 14:1; Acts 16:31; Phil 1:29;
1 John 3:23.
Unconditional election can't handle these kinds of verses because they link God's choice with human responsibility. I consider that the Bible teaches election but it is conditional election and not an autocratic God's choice to save not many and to damn a whole lot.
My view is that such a God who propagates double-predestination is a monster. See:
Is a Calvinistic God a contradiction when compared with the God revealed in Scripture?
Oz