Wrangler
Well-Known Member
I use the KJV only and I am not a trinitarian.
You not answering the Acts 2:36 question tells the story.
No translation with ‘James’ in the title is readable to me, thus defeating the translation purpose. Acts 2:36?
Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.
You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
I use the KJV only and I am not a trinitarian.
36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.You not answering the Acts 2:36 question tells the story.
No translation with ‘James’ in the title is readable to me, thus defeating the translation purpose. Acts 2:36?
36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made the same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
What about it?
Jesus is indeed God.Re-read the question of the OP and the many linguistic analysis posts. God made Jesus ... Ergo, Jesus is not God.
Jesus is indeed God.
He was made God by his God.
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.” John 3:16
Jesus told Nicodemus that God “gave” His Son. This is the everlasting gospel. If God did not possess a son then He would not have had a son to give.
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.” John 3:16
Jesus told Nicodemus that God “gave” His Son. This is the everlasting gospel. If God did not possess a son then He would not have had a son to give. It must follow therefore that Christ was God’s “only begotten Son” before He came to earth. Jesus unfolded before Nicodemus the whole plan of salvation, and his mission to the world. In none of his subsequent discourses did the Saviour explain so thoroughly, step by step, the work necessary to be done in the human heart, if it would inherit the kingdom of Heaven. He traced man's salvation directly to the love of the Father, which led him to give his Son unto death that man might be saved. If the Father did not have a Son to give then this ‘giving of a Son’ is nothing more than divine play-acting. In fact it could even be called a lie. According to Jesus it was God the Father who had the prerogative of deciding whether or not Christ should come to earth. It was therefore the Father’s ultimate decision that His Son should be allowed to become the ‘sacrificial lamb’ to make the atonement for mankind.
Jesus was made a quickening spirit upon his resurrection per 1 Cor 15.This is trinitarian doctrine contrary to all of Scripture, including the only verse under discussion in this thread. Acts 2:36.
Anytime one reads "God" in a passage juxtaposed with Jesus, one should read "in his unitarian nature. God, in his unitarian nature made Jesus. This is what Acts 2:36 says. It does not say God made Jesus God but (one of many) lords in the Bible as well as the Messiah. How do you get Jesus was made God from the text?
All I shall say is that if Jesus said that God gave His Son, then God had a Son to give. I shall not debate this however with you. I've said my peace, it is up to the holy Spirit to reveal truth, not me. God bless .Br/Backlit bro....I just have to say you did not have to amplify and write a long post based on an incorrect premise.
God 'gave' his Son to us simply means Yahshua was born (not pre-existed) by his Father and sent into Judea, Galilee and for the world as a sacrificial lamb as we both know why of course. There is no mysterious pre-existence text in scripture that says the Father AND the Son, together existed from time immemorial. It's wishful thinking.
And if you want to use a couple of clearing marked idioms to counter with, then you are then not aware they exist and why they are there.....and then mind some of the inaccurate translations in these areas.
The word 'gave' means in John 3:16 'sacrificed' his human life, period. John 3:14 support this idea as the local context verse...'he must be raised up.' It does not mean at all to say, 'well its time Son, off you go (came) down from (here in) heaven (an idiom!!) , to the earth and do you sacrificial duty for mankind. And be back up here in a jiffy when I get you back on your feet so we can now really go to town and develop my new project and plan for my new Kingdom and you are the head of it as you know,...'etc.
G'day or should I say good evening bro
APAK
Jesus was made a quickening spirit upon his resurrection per 1 Cor 15
A previous poster said God came as Jesus, in the person of his son. That is an actor. God did not come as Jesus but inside Jesus. How can you guys get so twisted? I know. The Catholic Church taught you that.Fascinating. Why you are hijacking a thread not about this is clear. You don’t want to address Scripture that undermines your doctrine.
All good...peace as always bro...I do not break bonds over this seemingly impasse. There are bigger fish to fry in lifeAll I shall say is that if Jesus said that God gave His Son, then God had a Son to give. I shall not debate this however with you. I've said my peace, it is up to the holy Spirit to reveal truth, not me. God bless .
Which scripture?Fascinating. Why you are hijacking a thread not about this is clear. You don’t want to address Scripture that undermines your doctrine.
A previous poster said God came as Jesus, in the person of his son.
Which scripture?
I am only commenting occasionally.?
I did address the OPYou are only occasionally hijacking a thread by introducing verses other than what the OP is about, Acts 2:36.