Should the words Gentile(s) or Heathen exist in scripture?

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APAK

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I would caution and suggest, that God's providence over His word, is not subject to translations, but goes forth throughout all generations according to His will alone, in spite of the errors of men.

I would even go so far as to say that if it is not convincing that God as much as uses men's weakness to further the cause of His greater will - it should be, as "His strength is made perfect in weakness."

We know that God's word will not return void, and that men's weakness is overwhelming evident to men, and therefore certainly known to God. In other words, men could no more misguide the nations with words than they could save men with words. But, thank God - that is not how it works.

ScottA: I do understand ‘adequately’ in my mind, God’s Providence and his will regarding his words, as in at least scripture. Meaning, besides knowing a lot of scripture I also know somewhat why it might be written the way it is, errors and all. I have sensed this for quite a while.

I even know quite often what I need to do, as his will for me... not always

If I understand you correctly, regardless of the OP and its implications here, God’s plan has already accounted for it. It was meant to happen.

It also could be God’s plan and his will for me or any other person to highlight these types of ‘errors.’ And it was meant to be effective and instructional for someone’s benefit.

I cannot truly know this for sure, although I believe my cause is to say the truth wherever I see it buried. Folks can take it or leave it.

I do want to be an effective servant..

Bless you,



APAK
 
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soul man

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I recently opened a thread on how a ‘new’ secondary meaning is being used by the modern ethnic Khazarian Jew, since the 17th century to convey they are the Jews of Christ’s time whether promoted by themselves and/or other Christians. It makes no difference. There is a term that is inextricably linked to these modern-day Jews. It is the word, Gentile(s) and even Heathen. It should never be there in scripture. So why is it still there?

The word Gentile(s) would later serve to legitimize and promote these same modern Jews. The introduction and meaning of the word Gentile(s) would also effectively demote Christianity to an inferior ‘spiritual’ class of person. That mindset has not changed today! It has caused much confusion.

Here’s a concise version of the evolution of the word gentile(s).

1. Originally the Hebrew term goi or goyim (plural) meant people(s), tribes, nations from ANY place on the earth, including themselves, the Hebrews and Israelites. This was the gold standard for the meaning.

2. The Greek picked it up and called the word ethne /ethnos for the same meaning as goy or goyim.

All would have been fine until the Latin speaking Catholics got involved, and not necessarily their fault at all.

3. The Catholic folks (Jerome and company- late 4th century) picked up the Greek word ethne/ethnos and in Latin Vulgate the word became the ‘Gentillis,’ an adjective and not a noun, for a person of a tribe or clan. They went even further however. It later meant a tribe ‘not of Rome,’ because the Catholics thought they were now the Israel in scripture. They invented a completely new meaning that Rome meant Israel. So that gentillis now meant ‘not Israel.’

4. Then the English translators BLINDLY took the Catholic Latin word gentillis and it became gentile(s). The meaning however stayed as ‘not of Israel.’ The adjective original form was changed to noun form by 1400 AD.

5. Since the 17th century when the English new word ‘Jew(s)’ was placed into Bibles for the first time, the word gentile(s) already in scripture, took on a new meaning. It now meant ‘not of the Jew,’ or ‘non-Jew.’ Now I will demonstrate how this name Gentile(s) is both a ridiculous word with a nonsensical meaning in scripture. The same goes for the word ‘Heathen.’

I will first use the English KJV Bible as by far the worst-case contributor of chaos with examples. And I will show how the Modern KJV fixed these at least example errors.

The English KJV Bible has the Hebrew words of goi or goyim and translates it as, in the OT: ‘gentiles’ 30x, ‘heathen’ 143x, ‘nation’ 114x, ‘nations’ 299x. The problem is that 30 times the word gentile is used and 143 times the word heathen is used in the OT. This means 42 percentage of the words for nations or peoples are incorrectly translated in the KJV in the OT. This is staggering.

Two ridiculous examples:

(Gen 10:5) By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations. (KJV)

So, there were Islands of the (NON-JEWS)?

The Modern KJV fixed the error.

(Gen 10:5) By these were the coasts of the nations divided in their lands, every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations. (MKJV)

(Isa 42:1) Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles. (KJV)

So, God is going to bring judgment to the (NON-JEWS). I thought it meant to the NATIONS or PEOPLES.

The MKJV fixed the error:

(Isa 42:1) Behold My Servant, whom I uphold; My Elect, in whom My soul delights. I have put My Spirit on Him; He shall bring out judgment to the nations. (MKJV)

Now let’s review the KJV NT words of Gentile and Heathen used the translation of the Greek ethne/ethnos

‘Gentiles’ 99x, heathen 7x, ‘nation’ 31x, ‘nations’ 37x. This means that 155 percentage of the words for nations or peoples are incorrectly translated in the KJV in the NT to gentile(s) or heathen. That is more than staggering, it is preposterous.

The reason why Gentiles is used especially in Acts and Romans is because the translators also interpreted scripture. They assumed that because some people were of Greek origin (they changed the Greek word Hellen for Greek to Gentile), they must then be a non-Jew and therefore used the incorrect term, Gentile(s).

Two ridiculous examples:

(Mat 20:19) And shall deliver him to the Gentiles to mock, and to scourge, and to crucify him: and the third day he shall rise again. (KJV)

So, Jesus was delivered to the NON-JEWS? I don’t think so.

The Modern KJV fixed the error

(Mat 20:19) And they shall deliver Him to the nations to mock and to scourge and to crucify. And the third day He shall rise again.(MKJV)

(Luk 2:32) A light to lighten the Gentiles, and the glory of thy people Israel. (KJV)

To the NON-JEWS?

The Modern KJV fixed the error

(Luk 2:32) a light for revelation to the nations, and the glory of Your people Israel. (MKJV)

In the last 100 years several Bible translators have attempted to rectify this major blunder of the KJV Bible and a few early English versions. They have managed to fix some of the errors and replaced the word gentile(s) or heathen with the correct meanings from the original Hebrew or Greek original words.

What say you on this subject, as being part of the ridiculous word, Gentiles or even the Heathen?

Bless you,

APAK

The modern translators never cease to amaze me, do you really believer we need to retranslate when modern believers have a hard time translating the original. Think about it, danderous territory.
As I surf the forums and see more and more believers who question the written word, no wonder the confusion among so many. If you are looking for the great falling away, look no further.
If the believer does not have the word fixed in them by the HolySpirit, their dead in the water anyway, no leading, no life, no witness, a stick in the mud.
 
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APAK

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The modern translators never cease to amaze me, do you really believer we need to retranslate when modern believers have a hard time translating the original. Think about it, danderous territory.
As I surf the forums and see more and more believers who question the written word, no wonder the confusion among so many. If you are looking for the great falling away, look no further.
If the believer does not have the word fixed in them by the HolySpirit, their dead in the water anyway, no leading, no life, no witness, a stick in the mud.
soul man:

Yes, it is for each to weigh and understand scripture for themselves. I was just tired of folks being blind to some key words and their (secondary prevalent) meanings. It is bad enough that non-believers carry some of these words as truth, in ignorance.

Bless you,

APAK
 
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DPMartin

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I recently opened a thread on how a ‘new’ secondary meaning is being used by the modern ethnic Khazarian Jew, since the 17th century to convey they are the Jews of Christ’s time whether promoted by themselves and/or other Christians. It makes no difference. There is a term that is inextricably linked to these modern-day Jews. It is the word, Gentile(s) and even Heathen. It should never be there in scripture. So why is it still there?

The word Gentile(s) would later serve to legitimize and promote these same modern Jews. The introduction and meaning of the word Gentile(s) would also effectively demote Christianity to an inferior ‘spiritual’ class of person. That mindset has not changed today! It has caused much confusion.

Here’s a concise version of the evolution of the word gentile(s).

1. Originally the Hebrew term goi or goyim (plural) meant people(s), tribes, nations from ANY place on the earth, including themselves, the Hebrews and Israelites. This was the gold standard for the meaning.

2. The Greek picked it up and called the word ethne /ethnos for the same meaning as goy or goyim.

All would have been fine until the Latin speaking Catholics got involved, and not necessarily their fault at all.

3. The Catholic folks (Jerome and company- late 4th century) picked up the Greek word ethne/ethnos and in Latin Vulgate the word became the ‘Gentillis,’ an adjective and not a noun, for a person of a tribe or clan. They went even further however. It later meant a tribe ‘not of Rome,’ because the Catholics thought they were now the Israel in scripture. They invented a completely new meaning that Rome meant Israel. So that gentillis now meant ‘not Israel.’

4. Then the English translators BLINDLY took the Catholic Latin word gentillis and it became gentile(s). The meaning however stayed as ‘not of Israel.’ The adjective original form was changed to noun form by 1400 AD.

5. Since the 17th century when the English new word ‘Jew(s)’ was placed into Bibles for the first time, the word gentile(s) already in scripture, took on a new meaning. It now meant ‘not of the Jew,’ or ‘non-Jew.’ Now I will demonstrate how this name Gentile(s) is both a ridiculous word with a nonsensical meaning in scripture. The same goes for the word ‘Heathen.’

I will first use the English KJV Bible as by far the worst-case contributor of chaos with examples. And I will show how the Modern KJV fixed these at least example errors.

The English KJV Bible has the Hebrew words of goi or goyim and translates it as, in the OT: ‘gentiles’ 30x, ‘heathen’ 143x, ‘nation’ 114x, ‘nations’ 299x. The problem is that 30 times the word gentile is used and 143 times the word heathen is used in the OT. This means 42 percentage of the words for nations or peoples are incorrectly translated in the KJV in the OT. This is staggering.

Two ridiculous examples:

(Gen 10:5) By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations. (KJV)

So, there were Islands of the (NON-JEWS)?

The Modern KJV fixed the error.

(Gen 10:5) By these were the coasts of the nations divided in their lands, every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations. (MKJV)

(Isa 42:1) Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles. (KJV)

So, God is going to bring judgment to the (NON-JEWS). I thought it meant to the NATIONS or PEOPLES.

The MKJV fixed the error:

(Isa 42:1) Behold My Servant, whom I uphold; My Elect, in whom My soul delights. I have put My Spirit on Him; He shall bring out judgment to the nations. (MKJV)

Now let’s review the KJV NT words of Gentile and Heathen used the translation of the Greek ethne/ethnos

‘Gentiles’ 99x, heathen 7x, ‘nation’ 31x, ‘nations’ 37x. This means that 155 percentage of the words for nations or peoples are incorrectly translated in the KJV in the NT to gentile(s) or heathen. That is more than staggering, it is preposterous.

The reason why Gentiles is used especially in Acts and Romans is because the translators also interpreted scripture. They assumed that because some people were of Greek origin (they changed the Greek word Hellen for Greek to Gentile), they must then be a non-Jew and therefore used the incorrect term, Gentile(s).

Two ridiculous examples:

(Mat 20:19) And shall deliver him to the Gentiles to mock, and to scourge, and to crucify him: and the third day he shall rise again. (KJV)

So, Jesus was delivered to the NON-JEWS? I don’t think so.

The Modern KJV fixed the error

(Mat 20:19) And they shall deliver Him to the nations to mock and to scourge and to crucify. And the third day He shall rise again.(MKJV)

(Luk 2:32) A light to lighten the Gentiles, and the glory of thy people Israel. (KJV)

To the NON-JEWS?

The Modern KJV fixed the error

(Luk 2:32) a light for revelation to the nations, and the glory of Your people Israel. (MKJV)

In the last 100 years several Bible translators have attempted to rectify this major blunder of the KJV Bible and a few early English versions. They have managed to fix some of the errors and replaced the word gentile(s) or heathen with the correct meanings from the original Hebrew or Greek original words.

What say you on this subject, as being part of the ridiculous word, Gentiles or even the Heathen?

Bless you,

APAK


how is it you are more expert at the English language then the brits? your opinion shows that you think scripture should meat your views of what it ought to say. heathens are heathens respectively and gentiles are gentiles respectively and Hebrews are Hebrews respectively.


people that seek to erode confidence in scripture are a dime a dozen, I do believe the serpent in the garden toke the same strategy to get Eve to buy into his BS.
 

APAK

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how is it you are more expert at the English language then the brits? your opinion shows that you think scripture should meat your views of what it ought to say. heathens are heathens respectively and gentiles are gentiles respectively and Hebrews are Hebrews respectively.


people that seek to erode confidence in scripture are a dime a dozen, I do believe the serpent in the garden toke the same strategy to get Eve to buy into his BS.
DPMartin:

What this OP is all about might be over your head.

A Greek person in scripture called Hellen in Greek can be a non-believer, a believer, from Judea or from the nations or another nation, can be a natural born Jew or a converted Jews or just a Greek. Jews did speak Greek then. Agreed?

A natural born Jew can be of Judea or of the nations (somewhere else) or from another particular nation or country, right?

A nation (collection of people) from the Greek ethnos, can be called Gentiles from the Latin Gentillis (adjective) or Israelites, right?

A nation can be a collection of natural born Jews, Greeks, believers or non-believers, right?

So, Israelites are always Gentiles (a nation), right? So, Israelites cannot be called non-natural born Jews, right?

So, Israelites cannot be called Gentiles. Wrong, right? This is the rub, the secondary meaning of calling a natural born Jew a non-Jew or a Gentile, meaning always a non-Jew, in incorrect and misleading.

Yes, there are many times in scripture where is apparent the a natural Jew, as a believer or non-believer is not a Gentile if you use the secondary meaning, of a Gentile = non-Jew, although it is not always the case and can be dangerous.

In the OT these same mistakes were made and were more obvious…and later versions of scripture fixed these errors, not I. They were changed because they carried the wrong meaning.

God making islands of Gentiles(secondary meaning of 'non-Jew') was clearly wrong. It was correctly changed to ..islands of the nations.

If you cannot understand any of this and you think I’m misleading anyone, they use your own brain and stop whining at me.

You are your own Captain.

Bless you,

APAK
 

Helen

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As I surf the forums and see more and more believers who question the written word, no wonder the confusion among so many. If you are looking for the great falling away, look no further.
If the believer does not have the word fixed in them by the HolySpirit, their dead in the water anyway, no leading, no life, no witness, a stick in the mud.

While on the one hand I am not one to believe that The Bible is part of the Godhead , as some seem to think.
I do agree with you. There very little or no value put upon it be so many "these days".
Christians have said to me.."I find it boring"
and also.." I don't understand it."

So, what happened!!! Why do some Christians 'not understand it'?
We understood it...we didn't, and we still do not, 'find it boring.'
Are they just lazy? Lack the Holy Spirit? Or what?
They sure must have a deceiving spirit of lethargy upon them!!

Dozens have said to me..." I just can't read the KJV.."
Can't or won't!!! But.... that's not todays discussion.
 

soul man

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While on the one hand I am not one to believe that The Bible is part of the Godhead , as some seem to think.
I do agree with you. There very little or no value put upon it be so many "these days".
Christians have said to me.."I find it boring"
and also.." I don't understand it."

So, what happened!!! Why do some Christians 'not understand it'?
We understood it...we didn't, and we still do not, 'find it boring.'
Are they just lazy? Lack the Holy Spirit? Or what?
They sure must have a deceiving spirit of lethargy upon them!!

Dozens have said to me..." I just can't read the KJV.."
Can't or won't!!! But.... that's not todays discussion.

Who knows really what the problem could be for some, but it seems epidemic since the internet opened up and we get to see the thinking of alot of people. I joined one group that prided themselves in being free, as I began to write the feedback, was to me unbelievable. How do you know the bible is true, this was from Christians that at some point had been hurt or duped by religion and they carried a bad taste for anything spiritual.
I just quietly left, if believers do not believe the bible is the word of God, I'm wasting their time and mine. It really defeats the purpose of being a blessing to the body of Christ.
 
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brakelite

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I love the KJV. I cannot seem to memorise texts from other versions, whereas the KJV flows and is almost poetic in its structure which somehow gels with me. But I also realise it has its limitations. There are many contradictions, even within the gospels. But these do not present a problem to me. The Bible is NOT word inspired. It is God's thoughts being given to man who wrote them down in his own language using his own words, and their own style. Hence we see differences in style between various letters, even by the same author. ! Peter and 2 Peter a case in point. In the original Greek they are as different as chalk and cheese. Yet the thoughts and principles they present are consistent not just with each other, but with the rest of scripture.
The authors of the various books in scripture were not God's pen...they were God's penmen. There is a world of difference. Also, in some of the details when comparing one gospel with another, there are differences. But that is to be expected, and law enforcement, when they weigh up eye-witness accounts of crime scenes, prefer to see differences between the accounts presented. Too much agreement suggests collusion...differences merely present different perspectives and are more evident that the story they tell is the truth.
 
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soul man

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I don't really like to throw scripture at any particular situation, but this may fit the times who knows, seems to flow with what is happening in the body of Christ.

3 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears;
 

bbyrd009

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As I surf the forums and see more and more believers who question the written word,
... And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four
quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth ...

you better question the "written word," as Scripture makes palin @ "Scribes" and "strong men" imo
there was no puzzle to be worked out in the translation of this original Word, see
 
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Helen

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I love the KJV. I cannot seem to memorise texts from other versions, whereas the KJV flows and is almost poetic in its structure which somehow gels with me. But I also realise it has its limitations. There are many contradictions, even within the gospels. But these do not present a problem to me. The Bible is NOT word inspired. It is God's thoughts being given to man who wrote them down in his own language using his own words, and their own style. Hence we see differences in style between various letters, even by the same author. ! Peter and 2 Peter a case in point. In the original Greek they are as different as chalk and cheese. Yet the thoughts and principles they present are consistent not just with each other, but with the rest of scripture.
The authors of the various books in scripture were not God's pen...they were God's penmen. There is a world of difference. Also, in some of the details when comparing one gospel with another, there are differences. But that is to be expected, and law enforcement, when they weigh up eye-witness accounts of crime scenes, prefer to see differences between the accounts presented. Too much agreement suggests collusion...differences merely present different perspectives and are more evident that the story they tell is the truth.

I loved that post...I thought it was great. I agree..I too have learned chucks of by heart. That's what our old Pastor told us to do 50+ years ago...so we did.
Also learning chapter and verse on where to find things. :)
( these days not many people even carry a bible to church, and some openly admit that they don't read it...even the modern multi -favours. :( )

I liked how you said...< The Bible is NOT 'word inspired'. It is God's thoughts being given to man who wrote them down in his own language using his ( man's) own words, and their own style.
Hence we see differences in style between various letters, even by the same author. ! Peter and 2 Peter a case in point. In the original Greek they are as different as chalk and cheese. >

God breathed and inspired,...with man's interpretation ...just like when we get a dream or vision...we are pretty sure what God is saying..
There is such a leap between God's thoughts, and our tiny brains to always perfectly understand. ( I am sure both Moses and Ezekiel needed recovery time after God revealed such powerful, way out mysteries to them :D )

Excellently post... Thank you...
 
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soul man

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... And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four
quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth ...

you better question the "written word," as Scripture makes palin @ "Scribes" and "strong men" imo
there was no puzzle to be worked out in the translation of this original Word, see

Sry byrd I have to by a vowel, I'm not getting what you said ☺
 

bbyrd009

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soul man

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Taken

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soul man:

Yes, it is for each to weigh and understand scripture for themselves. I was just tired of folks being blind to some key words and their (secondary prevalent) meanings. It is bad enough that non-believers carry some of these words as truth, in ignorance.

Bless you,

APAK

..."it is for each to weigh and understand scripture for themselves"

Disagree.

Scripture teaches to TRUST to believe the Knowledge of the Scriptures.

Scripture teaches, the Understanding IS plainly revealed (or not). And when NOT, only GOD gives the UNDERSTANDING of the Knowledge of His Word.

Problem arises when MEN attempt to USE their Minds, to "weigh" and decided the "Understainding" of Scripture; when Scripture itself is not revealing the understanding.

God Bless,
Taken
 

Reggie Belafonte

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I recently opened a thread on how a ‘new’ secondary meaning is being used by the modern ethnic Khazarian Jew, since the 17th century to convey they are the Jews of Christ’s time whether promoted by themselves and/or other Christians. It makes no difference. There is a term that is inextricably linked to these modern-day Jews. It is the word, Gentile(s) and even Heathen. It should never be there in scripture. So why is it still there?

The word Gentile(s) would later serve to legitimize and promote these same modern Jews. The introduction and meaning of the word Gentile(s) would also effectively demote Christianity to an inferior ‘spiritual’ class of person. That mindset has not changed today! It has caused much confusion.

Here’s a concise version of the evolution of the word gentile(s).

1. Originally the Hebrew term goi or goyim (plural) meant people(s), tribes, nations from ANY place on the earth, including themselves, the Hebrews and Israelites. This was the gold standard for the meaning.

2. The Greek picked it up and called the word ethne /ethnos for the same meaning as goy or goyim.

All would have been fine until the Latin speaking Catholics got involved, and not necessarily their fault at all.

3. The Catholic folks (Jerome and company- late 4th century) picked up the Greek word ethne/ethnos and in Latin Vulgate the word became the ‘Gentillis,’ an adjective and not a noun, for a person of a tribe or clan. They went even further however. It later meant a tribe ‘not of Rome,’ because the Catholics thought they were now the Israel in scripture. They invented a completely new meaning that Rome meant Israel. So that gentillis now meant ‘not Israel.’

4. Then the English translators BLINDLY took the Catholic Latin word gentillis and it became gentile(s). The meaning however stayed as ‘not of Israel.’ The adjective original form was changed to noun form by 1400 AD.

5. Since the 17th century when the English new word ‘Jew(s)’ was placed into Bibles for the first time, the word gentile(s) already in scripture, took on a new meaning. It now meant ‘not of the Jew,’ or ‘non-Jew.’ Now I will demonstrate how this name Gentile(s) is both a ridiculous word with a nonsensical meaning in scripture. The same goes for the word ‘Heathen.’

I will first use the English KJV Bible as by far the worst-case contributor of chaos with examples. And I will show how the Modern KJV fixed these at least example errors.

The English KJV Bible has the Hebrew words of goi or goyim and translates it as, in the OT: ‘gentiles’ 30x, ‘heathen’ 143x, ‘nation’ 114x, ‘nations’ 299x. The problem is that 30 times the word gentile is used and 143 times the word heathen is used in the OT. This means 42 percentage of the words for nations or peoples are incorrectly translated in the KJV in the OT. This is staggering.

Two ridiculous examples:

(Gen 10:5) By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations. (KJV)

So, there were Islands of the (NON-JEWS)?

The Modern KJV fixed the error.

(Gen 10:5) By these were the coasts of the nations divided in their lands, every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations. (MKJV)

(Isa 42:1) Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles. (KJV)

So, God is going to bring judgment to the (NON-JEWS). I thought it meant to the NATIONS or PEOPLES.

The MKJV fixed the error:

(Isa 42:1) Behold My Servant, whom I uphold; My Elect, in whom My soul delights. I have put My Spirit on Him; He shall bring out judgment to the nations. (MKJV)

Now let’s review the KJV NT words of Gentile and Heathen used the translation of the Greek ethne/ethnos

‘Gentiles’ 99x, heathen 7x, ‘nation’ 31x, ‘nations’ 37x. This means that 155 percentage of the words for nations or peoples are incorrectly translated in the KJV in the NT to gentile(s) or heathen. That is more than staggering, it is preposterous.

The reason why Gentiles is used especially in Acts and Romans is because the translators also interpreted scripture. They assumed that because some people were of Greek origin (they changed the Greek word Hellen for Greek to Gentile), they must then be a non-Jew and therefore used the incorrect term, Gentile(s).

Two ridiculous examples:

(Mat 20:19) And shall deliver him to the Gentiles to mock, and to scourge, and to crucify him: and the third day he shall rise again. (KJV)

So, Jesus was delivered to the NON-JEWS? I don’t think so.

The Modern KJV fixed the error

(Mat 20:19) And they shall deliver Him to the nations to mock and to scourge and to crucify. And the third day He shall rise again.(MKJV)

(Luk 2:32) A light to lighten the Gentiles, and the glory of thy people Israel. (KJV)

To the NON-JEWS?

The Modern KJV fixed the error

(Luk 2:32) a light for revelation to the nations, and the glory of Your people Israel. (MKJV)

In the last 100 years several Bible translators have attempted to rectify this major blunder of the KJV Bible and a few early English versions. They have managed to fix some of the errors and replaced the word gentile(s) or heathen with the correct meanings from the original Hebrew or Greek original words.

What say you on this subject, as being part of the ridiculous word, Gentiles or even the Heathen?

Bless you,

APAK
I am not a fan of the MKJV but I agree you are correct on this subject.

It's better that people have a understanding of the History not to mention the cultural aspects to make heads or tails out of what is being conveyed.

English is just a translation of and the point can be some what missed, that the translator tried to convey.

One of the problems of English is that the words can change their meaning over the years to what a audience today may think the words convey, especially nowadays where a words meaning can be turned around totally 180 deg, like the word wicked for one.

Coming in the clouds is one point that people mistake, it means coming in his heavenly Majesty, the type of Clouds reflect many things in the Bible and they must be interpreted for what they truly mean.
 
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APAK

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I am not a fan of the MKJV but I agree you are correct on this subject.

It's better that people have a understanding of the History not to mention the cultural aspects to make heads or tails out of what is being conveyed.

English is just a translation of and the point can be some what missed, that the translator tried to convey.

One of the problems of English is that the words can change their meaning over the years to what a audience today may think the words convey, especially nowadays where a words meaning can be turned around totally 180 deg, like the word wicked for one.

Coming in the clouds is one point that people mistake, it means coming in his heavenly Majesty, the type of Clouds reflect many things in the Bible and they must be interpreted for what they truly mean.

I just learned something new from you and I'm also encouraged by your words.

Thank you Reggie

APAK