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What Scripture indicates that when God gathers His Spirit from us at our death that we continue to be "aware" of anything? (Psalm 146:3-4 KJV; Ecclesiastes 9:5 KJV)ATP said:If this is true then how and why?
2 Cor 5:8 - If our spirit is present with the Lord, how are we present if we're not aware of anything. Why be anxious to be present with the Lord if we're not aware.
Phil 1:23 - Why be torn if we're not aware of anything. Why is Christ better by far if we're not aware of his presence.
2 Cor 5:8 - We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.
Phil 1:23 - I am torn between the two: I desire to depart and be with Christ, which is better by far;
Have it your way. I leave you to your own understandings.ATP said:If this is true then how and why?
2 Cor 5:8 - If our spirit is present with the Lord, how are we present if we're not aware of anything. Why be anxious to be present with the Lord if we're not aware.
Phil 1:23 - Why be torn if we're not aware of anything. Why is Christ better by far if we're not aware of his presence.
2 Cor 5:8 - We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.
Phil 1:23 - I am torn between the two: I desire to depart and be with Christ, which is better by far;
Right, he said no man. He didn't say no spirit.
I take it that you gave up on post#16. B)Bobby Hall said:Have it your way. I leave you to your own understandings.
Psalm 146:3-4 is talking about nonbelievers. Notice verse 3 says Do not put your trust in princes, in human beings, who cannot save.Phoneman777 said:What Scripture indicates that when God gathers His Spirit from us at our death that we continue to be "aware" of anything? (Psalm 146:3-4 KJV; Ecclesiastes 9:5 KJV)
Then why are they confident, anxious, torn and desiring to be in the presence of the Lord?? To be in the presence of something, don't you have to be aware of where you "be"?Phoneman777 said:If we take Philippians 1:23 and 2 Corinthians 5:8 as they are written, is there any demand in either of these passages that the Paul's departure from down here is immediately followed by his appearance with Jesus up there? Sorry, but no, there isn't.
Eccl 9:5 - is referring to the dead not having knowledge of what is occurring on this old earth after they die. It's simply stating the fact of what death represents on this old earth.Phoneman777 said:While the dead lie in the grave in a state of insensibility, the living know they are headed there (Ecclesiastes 9:5-10 KJV) and why shouldn't Paul desire to skip that intermediate state between the here and now and the hereafter with Jesus? I do.
Click here..https://www.google.com/?gws_rd=ssl#q=what+does+under+the+sun+meanPhoneman777 said:although I think your "under the sun" reasoning is a bit of a stretch.
The word 'perish' describes nonbelievers. John 3:16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.Phoneman777 said:The text also says that their emotions are "perished", but I would venture to guess that you'd say, "Yes, perished down here, but not up there."
Phoneman777 said:However, you do realize that the Bible says that Satan and the wicked will not exist, right? Of the devil, "Never shalt thou be anymore," and of the wicked, "...they shall be as though they had not been." So, if the Second Death is "extinction of being", then why shouldn't the First Death be such, as well?
Phoneman777 said:The punishment you speak of is what the wicked experience while living their Second Life to which Jesus resurrected them. Once they die the Second Death, it won't be possible for them to experience anything because they won't exist.
ATP said:But what you're describing is temporary, (living their second life when Jesus resurrects them). Scripture says the punishment, shame, the worm, the fire and contempt is eternal and everlasting.
Matt 25:46 - "Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life."
Dan 12:2 - Multitudes who sleep in the dust of the earth will awake: some to everlasting life, others to shame and everlasting contempt.
Mark 9:43-48 - If your hand causes you to stumble, cut it off. It is better for you to enter life maimed than with two hands to go into hell, where the fire never goes out. [44]b 45And if your foot causes you to stumble, cut it off. It is better for you to enter life crippled than to have two feet and be thrown into hell. [46]c 47And if your eye causes you to stumble, pluck it out. It is better for you to enter the kingdom of God with one eye than to have two eyes and be thrown into hell, 48where “ ‘the worms that eat them do not die, and the fire is not quenched.’
Your ability to post multiple excerpts from different post #'s in the same reply is very handy. How do you do it?ATP said:Click here..https://www.google.com/?gws_rd=ssl#q=what+does+under+the+sun+mean
1. on earth; in existence (used in expressions emphasizing the large number of something).
The word 'perish' describes nonbelievers. John 3:16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.
Cut and paste the entire grey area. ;)Phoneman777 said:Your ability to post multiple excerpts from different post #'s in the same reply is very handy. How do you do it?
1 Peter 3:18-20 is not speaking of Christ preaching while He was dead. The order of events is, He was put to death, made alive, went, proclaimed to the spirits. The proclamation was made after He resurrected. The order I stated is required by the Greek grammar.ATP said:I might of changed my beliefs on this, but I have three questions that are still on my mind..
(1.) Since Hades is the grave where believers/nonbelievers are left unconscious, how or why did Jesus preach to the imprisoned spirits in Hades. (1 Peter 3:18-20 For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive in the Spirit. 19After being made alive,d he went and made proclamation to the imprisoned spirits— 20to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built. In it only a few people, eight in all, were saved through water,)
(2.) Since only the spirit represents "the breath", in 1 Kings 17:22 why is soul translated breath in the NET Bible. (NET - The LORD answered Elijah's prayer; the boy's breath returned to him and he lived. http://biblehub.com/1_kings/17-22.htm
(3.) If soul sleep is truth, then why pen down 2 Cor 5:8 and Phil 1:21-23.
- ATP
You have to consider how dictionaries are made. Men read the Scriptures to see how words are used and then come up with a definition that they think fits all of the uses. The problem is this assumes that they properly understand the text. If they misunderstand the text then they can possible come up with incorrect definitions. Rather than rely on a dictionary I suggest looking up the words in the original language and find out what passages they are located in and then read those passages to determine what they mean. The way they are used in the Scriptures is more accurate than someone's thoughts on the word.ATP said:I came across something very interesting today, the definitions of Spirit and definitions of Soul..
Things I noticed..
Spirt#3 DEF - Regards spirit also as soul
Soul#1 DEF - Regards soul also as spiritual part of humans
Soul#2 DEF - Regards soul also as the spiritual part of humans believed to survive death
Soul#3 DEF - Regards soul also as the disembodied spirit
Soul#6 DEF - Regards soul also as spirit or courage
Now if the spirit and soul are separate entities, then why would a dictionary interchange them five times?
That would make Eccl 12:7 spirit and soul returning to God, not just spirit.
and the dust returns to the ground it came from, and the spirit (soul) returns to God who gave it.
Spirit - http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/spirit?s=t
noun
1. the principle of conscious life; the vital principle in humans, animating the body or mediating between body and soul.
2. the incorporeal part of humans: present in spirit though absent in body.
3. the soul regarded as separating from the body at death.
4. conscious, incorporeal being, as opposed to matter: the world of spirit.
5. a supernatural, incorporeal being, especially one inhabiting a place, object, etc., or having a particular character: evil spirits.
6. a fairy, sprite, or elf.
7.an angel or demon.
Soul - http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/Soul?s=t
noun
1. the principle of life, feeling, thought, and action in humans, regarded as a distinct entity separate from the body, and commonly held to be separable in existence from the body; the spiritual part of humans as distinct from the physical part.
2. the spiritual part of humans regarded in its moral aspect, or as believed to survive death and be subject to happiness or misery in a life to come: arguing the immortality of the soul.
3. the disembodied spirit of a deceased person: He feared the soul of the deceased would haunt him.
4. the emotional part of human nature; the seat of the feelings or sentiments.
5. a human being; person.
6. high-mindedness; noble warmth of feeling, spirit or courage, etc.
7. the animating principle; the essential element or part of something.
I addressed these in another post.ATP said:If this is true then how and why?
2 Cor 5:8 - If our spirit is present with the Lord, how are we present if we're not aware of anything. Why be anxious to be present with the Lord if we're not aware.
Phil 1:23 - Why be torn if we're not aware of anything. Why is Christ better by far if we're not aware of his presence.
2 Cor 5:8 - We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.
Phil 1:23 - I am torn between the two: I desire to depart and be with Christ, which is better by far;
Yeah, but it says he was preaching too the spirits in hell. Why was he doing this if everyone is unconscious.Butch5 said:1 Peter 3:18-20 is not speaking of Christ preaching while He was dead. The order of events is, He was put to death, made alive, went, proclaimed to the spirits. The proclamation was made after He resurrected. The order I stated is required by the Greek grammar.
I think the answer to that lies in defining "Spirits" in this instance. I would think the spirits in hell may not necessarily be the dead but the evil spirits of Satan.ATP said:Yeah, but it says he was preaching too the spirits in hell. Why was he doing this if everyone is unconscious.
Notice what's following it, the days of Noah..1 Peter 3:19-20 After being made alive,d he went and made proclamation to the imprisoned spirits— 20to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built. In it only a few people, eight in all, were saved through water,Born_Again said:I think the answer to that lies in defining "Spirits" in this instance. I would think the spirits in hell may not necessarily be the dead but the evil spirits of Satan.
See, this is where it would have served me well to look up the whole passage. :) My apologies, ATP.ATP said:Notice what's following it, the days of Noah..1 Peter 3:19-20 After being made alive,d he went and made proclamation to the imprisoned spirits— 20to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built. In it only a few people, eight in all, were saved through water,
Hi ATP,ATP said:Yeah, but it says he was preaching too the spirits in hell. Why was he doing this if everyone is unconscious.
Being naked does not equate to being without a body because God gives us a new body 1 Corinthians 15:37-38, 44-46, 54Notice He says we desire to be clothed with your habitation from heaven, that is the immortal state. But, notice he says that having been clothed we shall not be found naked. Paul doesn't want to be naked. In this passage being naked equates to being without a body, Paul doesn't want to be without a body. The setting here is a letter to the Corinthian, Corinth was right next to Athens which was the center of Greek Philosophy. One of the prevailing schools of thought in Athens was Plato's teaching that man is a spirit trapped in a flesh body. According to Plato man seeks to escape the body and as a spirit ascend into the heavens. This is the very thing that says he doesn't want, he doesn't want to be naked. Rather than being naked he want's to be clothed with his building from God, immortality.
It you follow the context of the argument it's pretty clear that being without a body is being naked. Paul's point in this is that he doesn't want to be as the Greek do.Angelina said:Being naked does not equate to being without a body because God gives us a new body 1 Corinthians 15:37-38, 44-46, 54
Being naked equates to being without Christ's blood covering...it equates to the sins of our un-renewed nature.
Romans 13
11 Besides this, knowing the time, it is already the hour for you to wake up from sleep, for now our salvation is nearer than when we first believed. 12 The night is nearly over, and the daylight is near, so let us discard the deeds of darkness and put on the armor of light. 13 Let us walk with decency, as in the daylight: not in carousing and drunkenness; not in sexual impurity and promiscuity; not in quarreling and jealousy. 14 But put on the Lord Jesus Christ, and make no plans to satisfy the fleshly desires.
Galatians 3
27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ like a garment.
Revelation 3
I counsel you to buy from Me gold refined in the fire, that you may be rich; and white garments, that you may be clothed, that the shame of your nakedness may not be revealed; and anoint your eyes with eye salve, that you may see.
Revelation 16
“Behold, I am coming as a thief. Blessed is he who watches, and keeps his garments, lest he walk naked and they see his shame.”