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Hmm,The poster has not made any defense to support that 2 Peter 1:1 and Titus 2:13 is 2 persons which he claims. I have provided both from the Greek and English that Paul is describing one Person in both passages who is identified as Jesus Christ our Great God and Savior and our God and Savior from both of those texts using exegetical principles. In Titus 2:13 not only did I prove it was one Person Jesus Christ but also proved that is impossible for Paul to be describing the Father because never once in the N.T. does it ever say that the Father is the One who is Returning at the 2nd Coming but in every single case it is always the Son who is Coming/Appearing.
hope this helps !!!
Jesus.Who was on Mt. Sinai?
Hugs
The "great" God is the Father ( and is a conjunction joining 2 "like" terms- not the "same" terms)
You need a deeper education
The poster has not made any defense to support that 2 Peter 1:1 and Titus 2:13 is 2 persons which he claims.
You didn’t explain anything in the Bible just your unbiblical ideas about 2 persons which the Greek refuted .I explained it in plain English and all your babble doesn't change that.
There is no further defense necessary and all your ranting doesn't change it.
No that is modalism. The Son is not the Father and the Son is God. The Trinity is not polytheist but is Monotheistic.Hmm,
So is the argument:
Is the Son also the Father?
Because I understand both are the same as well as the Holy Spirit is the Son which is the Father.
I don't see 3 seperate entities.
I see the Father = Mind
I see the Spirit = Heart
I see the Son = Soul/Body
Just like a person has all of these mind, heart and soul,
So is the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, the one and selfsame Lord.
Is this what the discussion is about?
I don't understand apologetics..
Thank You
Hugs
The Holy Ghost was definitely present in the Old Testament, and speaking of the Israelites: But they rebelled, and vexed His Holy Spirit: therefore He was turned to be their enemy, and he fought against them. (Isa 63:10) [Note: "Holy" should have been capitalized in the KJV. There are many instances where "Spirit" has also not been capitalized, which is unfortunate]Have you ever given thought to the fact that there was 'no Holy Ghost' in the Old Testament? He was not necessary in the Old Testament because there was no 'Christ in you the hope of glory' to be revealed.
So much for my lesson in RESPECT.... LOLI explained it in plain English and all your babble doesn't change that.
There is no further defense necessary and all your ranting doesn't change it.
You didn’t explain anything in the Bible just your unbiblical ideas about 2 persons which the Greek refuted .
next
Actually, just to jump in here for a moment, the Greek "kai", often translated "and", has two uses. The first is called the "copulative" use, which adds two different things together, Peter and John. The second is called the "explicative" use, which exlains a first noun with a second. John, even the fisherman. Context tells you which you are looking at generally speaking. In some cases you may need to visit a parallel passage for the definitive answer.
Simply stated, when you see "kai" in the text, you can read it as "and", or as "even". So the determination needs be made.
wrongly as in false teaching.Nope,sorry. asked and answered
Because you do not know the first thing about NT Greek as you just pretend to sheepdog. I demonstrated that fact from 2 simple passages from 2 Peter 1:1 and Titus 2:13. In both cases its impossible to be the Father from the Greek and the context. Let me know when you are able to make an exegetical argument to refute me, your ideas do not count as they are nothing but eisegesis.I'm familiar with that but i was strictly sticking with the English for the point i was making in that specific post for a reason.
sorry, no and no matter how many times you spin it- it doesn't changewrongly as in false teaching.
as we can see its all Greek to you.
hope this helps !!!
Because you do not know the first thing about NT Greek as you just pretend to sheepdog. I demonstrated that fact from 2 simple passages from 2 Peter 1:1 and Titus 2:13. In both cases its impossible to be the Father from the Greek and the context. Let me know when you are able to make an exegetical argument to refute me, your ideas do not count as they are nothing but eisegesis.
hope this helps !!!
the 2 person fallacy is all yours, you made that up to support your bias but as everyone reading this thread can see I supported its 1 person from both the Greek and the surrounding context from both Peter and Titus.Again, I stated it correctly, you are just trying to bulldoze a false point. Carry on because it is still in error.
the 2 person fallacy is all yours, you made that up to support your bias but as everyone reading this thread can see I supported its 1 person from both the Greek and the surrounding context from both Peter and Titus.
Let me know when you actually ready to make a real apologetic to defend your position. Until now its been completely absent in every single one of your posts in this thread. I on the other hand have made an exegetical and apologetic argument to support its 1 person in both passages- Jesus Christ who is identified as our Great God and Savior and our God and Savior.
Your snood comments are not an apologetic response but are just excuses to avoid dealing with the actual Greek text.
Where is “ supreme “ god mentioned in the Bible ?No defense needed
God the father is the Supreme God, Jesus is God and the Son of God- the two are NOT the same person. I have stated that numerous times and nothing more than that.
That is the whole of scripture. Your argument is false.
Where is “ supreme “ god mentioned in the Bible ?
chapter and verse please ?
your assumption once again is false and made up out of thin air .
I am so happy you chose to use the word Almighty as a synonym for Supreme as once again you made my case for Christ as the Supreme God, the Almighty God as will see below when we compare scripture with scripture like any GOOD bible student who "claims" to be an "apologist" should be doing themselves.The word "supreme" is an English selection for translation purposes by the translator so by definition ( Supreme being the unchallenged #1) that usage ( in title and intent) is everywhere
From "Lord" God, "Excellent" ( to go beyond), "Almighty" and so on. In Job 38, God goes into detail about His "supremacy".
Now to Jesus
Matthew 28:18- Jesus was GIVEN ( by the Supreme) all authority (He didn't have it before He was given it)
Ephesians 1:20-23- When God raised Christ ( the Supreme raised Him- Jesus didn't raise Himself) put Him at the "Right Hand" (That position is for the 2nd in Command)
There are others- 1Peter 3, John 17
As i said, God is the father and Supreme God, Jesus is God and the Son of the father, The 2 are not the same.
Its that simple.