ChristisGod
Well-Known Member
That would be the incorrect answer revealing you are not objective and your bias is dictating your conclusion. In Theology proper we call this eisegesis (reading your ideas into the text) whereas I will demonstrate exegesis( allowing the text to determine my ideas).God (theos) is the Father and Jesus is the Son. Two different people.
2 Peter 1:1
τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
2 Peter 1:11
τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
2 Peter 1:1
our God and Savior, Jesus Christ
2 Peter 1:11
our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ
We have a second person possessive pronoun "Our" modifying two different improper nouns (God and Savior) joined by "and" (Kia) to identify a proper noun (Jesus) [Granville/Sharp's]. Therefore, by basic grammar, we are identifying Jesus as God and Savior. We don't even have to know the Greek to see that Jesus is being called both God and Savior/ Lord and Savior in Peters 2nd Epistle. 2 Peter 2:20 and 2 Peter 3:18 also have the same Greek construction as 1:1 and 1:11.
But for those interested in the Greek here is the comparison of 1:1 and 1:11.
τοῦ is the same.
ἡμῶν is the same.
καὶ is the same.
Σωτῆρος is the same.
Ἰησοῦ is the same.
Χριστοῦ· is the same.
And all in the same order.
The only difference is the noun "Θεοῦ" in v.1, while "Κυρίου" is in v.11.
So if you want to deny that Jesus is "God" ("theou") in v.1, then you must deny that Jesus is "Lord" ("kuriou") in v.11. Otherwise you are being inconsistent and dishonest with the text. To say otherwise is proof positive you have an agenda when reading scripture and using eisegesis rather than exegesis of the biblical text in question.
hope this helps !!!