The Son is only called "God" in our English Bibles.
He is not called "God" in Hebrew or Greek, but "elohim" and "theos", both of which are titles of beings other than the Father.
When "elohim" is used of the Son, it cannot refer to "YHWH Elohim" since Yeshua himself said his Father (YHWH) is the "only true Elohim (God)"
John 17:3.
not saying that you're right or wrong, consider this verse. Isaiah 35:4 "Say to them [that are] of a fearful heart, Be strong, fear not: behold, your
God will come [with] vengeance, [even]
God [with] a recompence;
he will come and
save you".
here the SAVIOUR is identified as "GOD", H430 אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym (el-o-heem') n-m. this is in the plural. this is speaking of the Son, because the very next verses complete the context. Isaiah 35:5 "Then the eyes of the blind shall be opened, and the ears of the deaf shall be unstopped.
Isaiah 35:6 "Then shall the lame [man] leap as an hart, and the tongue of the dumb sing: for in the wilderness shall waters break out, and streams in the desert".
the blind saw, the deaf heard, the lame walked, and the speeachless sing. when did this all hapen? when Jesus the "Lord", the Son came. so clearly, "GOD", here in Isaiah 35:4 is H430 אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym (el-o-heem') n-m is refering to the "Son".
now let's clear up the John 17 question again. these are the same questions over and over and people are not putting them together. John 17:3 "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God,
and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent". did one notice the conjunction "and" here. it connect the "only true God" to "Jesus Christ".
let's see some example of this conjunction
AND. James 1:27 "Pure religion and undefiled before
God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, [and] to keep himself unspotted from the world".
here we have "God" connected to the title "Father by the conjunction "
and". question, is this two separate person, God / Father? you make the call.
now this one, Titus 2:13 "Looking for that blessed hope, and
the glorious appearing of the great
God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; is this the same person? let's see. Hebrews 9:28 "So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear
the second time without sin unto salvation".
ok, when have the Father ever appeared? remember God is invisible. and the Lord jesus said, John 1:18 "
No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [him]." declared him? yes, we have seen his
"manifestation or his express image", but not his apperance in person. so who is appearing as Titus 2:13 said?
Revelation 1:7 "Behold, he cometh with clouds;
and every eye shall see him, and they [also] which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.
just in case if one wants to use Colossians 2:9 "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily". here is your catch 22, Revelation 22:3 "And there shall be no more curse: but the throne of God
and of the Lamb shall be in it; and his servants shall
serve him: (not serve them)
Revelation 22:4 "
And they shall see his face; and his name [shall be] in their foreheads".
how many faces will they see? ONE Face, why because he's the ONLY Creator, listen, Revelation 14:7 "Saying with a loud voice, Fear God, and give glory
to him; for the hour of his judgment is come: and worship
him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters".
HIM .... that made heaven and earth? yes only
him, not them.
we suggest people read their bibles instead of men.
PICJAG.