Apparently - you didn't READ post #35 where I obliterated this argument.
You have not obliterated anything.
When Jesus made this statement in
Matt. 6:7, he was speaking about the
nonsensical babbling of
pagans to their gods – not the
sincere prayers of the faithful. We read about them in
1 Kings 18:26-29, where the pagan prophets on
Mount Carmel tried to invoke
Baal all day long,
repeatedly calling on his name and performing ritual dances.
Yes...and the praying of the rosary is very much like the babbling of the Baal-worshippers to Mary, the Queen of Heaven...(see the whole of Jeremiah's book)
- We see in Rev. 4:8 that the angels pray the SAME prayer day and night without ceasing in the presence of almighty God, “Holy, Holy, Holy is the Lord God Almighty.”
I am certain that their repetitions are not vain...and also, as one other person said, their words are not a prayer but a proclamation...they are not making the Lord God Almighty to be holy, holy, holy by praying for Him to be so...
- Psalm 136 goes on for 26 verses in a row, repeating the exact SAME prayer, “God's love endures forever”.
This also is a proclamation of scripture within the context of a prayer...the Psalmist is not praying for God's love to endure for ever...he is proclaiming that it is a fact that it does.
- Similarly, in Dan. 3:56-88 we read the exact SAME prayer for 32 VERSES, which is “bless the Lord; praise and exalt him above all forever.”
Daniel chapter 3 only has 30 verses in it, sorry.
And just so YOU know - the doxology, "For thine is the kingdom, etc.", comes from The Didache - which is a extrabilical source - NOT Scripture.
It may not be in Luke but it is in Matthew...now I know that you have an argument against it even being in Matthew below, and I will answer below.
Apparently - you're NOT familiar with the fact that this doxology has ALWAYS been suspect as far as having been in Matthew's original text. For example - the New American Standard Bible puts it in brackets. The English Standard Version and New International Version completely omit the doxology altogether as do MOST other translations.
For centuries, Bible scholars have said that this was a side note by a translator that was later added to the text.
1st of all, it is no skin off my back if those words are not in scripture...whether they are there or not, the kingdom and the power and the glory belong to our Father which is in heaven for ever and ever...that is simply a given.
Secondly, I am kjv-superior in my pov concerning Bible translations, for the following reason:
The devil omitted "in all thy ways" from his quoting of Psalms 91:11 in his temptation of Jesus, and this speaks volumes concerning his tactics when it comes to the scriptures. His best bet is to have you see a scripture through his lens...and he does this by handing you a scripture that is incomplete, by omitting the part of the verse that would be most helpful to you. I find this to be true in so many modern versions, that entire words, phrases, even paragraphs are taken out of the scriptures.
Now your Catholic Bible may indeed have 88 verses in Daniel chapter 3. Well, I am not privy to them because I do not own a Catholic Bible. I am also certain that there is nothing in verses 31-88 that will make a difference in my salvation...unless you can quote me a verse therein that shows some doctrine of salvation that I am missing in my kjv, that might make an eternal difference for my soul.
I can think of things like that in the kjv vs. modern versions, such as with the omitting of the second half of Romans 8:1...that can make a difference in someone's salvation for certain!
.
.
.
And therefore, since I am kjv-only, scholarship that suggests that "For thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory" does not belong there, means nothing to me. I hold it to be just a part of satan's tactic to remove important things from scripture...and I am not one to listen to satan and his pov on things.