Sorry...it’s how my mind works....I have to know the why and how of everything....I have been this way since childhood and hence my exit from Christendom in my early twenties because their beliefs were logically incomprehensible to me as was their idea of God. If God gave us our sense of logic, then he was not going to end up being a person whose existence is totally illogical.
I scrutinized the scriptures, using different translations and the translation was all over the place....nothing was the way Christ taught things.
Thankfully as time has progressed, all the information I needed was available on the internet....now there is no excuse for spiritual laziness or ignorance.
Yes he was.....but not one time did Jesus ever say that he was Almighty God or even his equivalent. Not once did the apostles teach that Jesus was Almighty God, because they too would have been guilty of blasphemy.....a capital offense.
No, sorry...you are reading into their words what they NEVER ONCE said. Christ never once said he was God....please provide scripture that says he did. Not from the lying Jews who wanted an excuse to kill him...but from the man himself.
NO you don't. If there is "God the Father", "God the Son" and "God the Holy Spirit" then you have three gods.
Never once does it say in scripture that the Holy Spirit is God. Both Jesus and God's spirit came
from God, but neither ARE God.
It is God's spirit than emanates from him, but is itself not a person, but God's power, directed to whatever or whomever God wishes it to go.
Again you are reading into scripture what you want it to say.....not one of these texts says that Jesus is God.
What translation are you using?
In this verse the word "
theotēs" occurs only once in the whole Bible, therefore there is no other verse to compare it to.
Translators were free to translate it as they wished, believing that it is derived from
G2316 ("
theos") and giving the meaning of
"divinity (abstractly):—godhead."
But here is no such word as "godhead" in the Bible. It is a trinitarian invention.
Without the trinity forcing the translation, it can read also as...
"all the fullness of the divine quality dwells bodily."
As Colossians 1:19 says...(Mounce Interlinear)
"For hoti God was pleased eudokeō to have all pas his ho fullness plērōma dwell katoikeō in en him autos".
"πλήρωμα plḗrōma, play'-ro-mah; from G4137; repletion or completion, i.e. (subjectively) what fills (as contents, supplement, copiousness, multitude), or (objectively) what is filled (as container, performance, period):—which is put in to fill up, piece that filled up, fulfilling, full, fulness." (Strongs)
So Jesus was filled with Holy Spirit just as others before him were....only in a different way, in a different role.
As the apostle Peter said....Acts 2:22 (NCB)
“Men of Israel, hear these words. Jesus of Nazareth was a man commended to you by God by means of miracles and portents and signs that God worked through him, as you yourselves know."
"Only begotten" when referring to Jesus carries no special meaning in that this term simply refers to an "only child".
No one said that Jesus was "made" but he was "created" as the scriptures clearly show. Only a created being can be called a "son of God".
A "firstborn" is the first of others that come after....otherwise it makes no sense to call Jesus a "firstborn" (Colossians 1:15) or an "only begotten" unless there were other 'sons' or a 'begetter' who caused their existence. The Father/Son relationship is what is established by Jesus himself, but Jesus was a "son" before he became a human. He was the first of many "sons of God" according to the Bible.
His uniqueness is because he was the only "Son of God" who was a direct creation of his Father.
What else does that scripture say?
"all things were created through him and for him."
You underlined it yourself.....
"through him and for him" makes no sense if God is speaking of himself.
How does one part of God create things "through" another equal part of himself? How does one part of God create things "for" the other equal part of himself.....if you really think it through, what is suggested by the trinity is absolutely ridiculous.
I have explained this so many times.....
Of course he was "before all things"....he was the very "beginning of God's creation" (Revelation 3:14)
All things came "through" the son from the Father.
All spirit beings are glorious.....even satan the devil is described as such before his defection. (Ezekiel 28:13-15)
Again...what translation are you using? It is terrible!
Read that verse in the Greek Interlinear....
"No one oudeis has horaō ever pōpote seen horaō God theos. The only monogenēs Son , himself God theos, the ho one who is eimi in eis the ho bosom kolpos of the ho Father patēr, he ekeinos has made him known exēgeomai."
Here is a classic example of adding words to the text that simply are not there...."Son himself" is added and distorts the verse completely.....skewed towards the trinity by those who should have known better.
Apart from telling us that
"no one has ever seen God" it also says that
"monogenes theos" has made him known. That is correctly translated
"only begotten god" as the NASB renders it.
Trinitarians shied away from that translation because it raised the inconvenient question of "how can God be begotten?"
We are not at liberty to add to the text in a deliberate attempt to distort its meaning.
I hope I have stuck to the script for you.....