Many would claim that to be heretical blasphemy and I wouldn't disagree
Matthew 1:18KJV
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
There's a very simple explanation for this that perhaps isn't obvious in whatever translation you might be reading. Read it in the original Greek....
It reads-- before they cohabitated. (
came together, living under one roof). In other words, she conceived on the wedding night-- the very moment that they came together-- united physically and she became his wife, as part of the wedding ceremony/ritual-- God was there and by His will, through the Holy Spirit, -Mary conceived-- before they ever even lived together.
As part of the wedding ceremony, the new husband would present evidence that they had consummated the marriage in the wedding booth/tent, and a blood-stained bedsheet/cloth was the acceptable proof of the bride's virginity. There was no other proof. Virginity was not assumed, but proven. Joseph had a serious problem if at the wedding ceremony there was no blood evidence to present.
You have to ask yourself-- What if? What if at that ceremony Joseph had no such proof (a blood-stained bedsheet) to present? He would have to shame her, OR--
not wanting to shame her, he might present manufactured evidence to satisfy the ceremony, then plan to divorce her quietly-- which is what scripture points towards. But before going through with that plan-- he is shown in a dream and it is revealed to him that nothing is amiss. And an angel explains to him that his wife has conceived as God ordained-- setting her apart for this special purpose and that the child himself also would be set apart-- as the holy one-- the messiah long-awaited. And Joseph is assured by the angel that she was indeed a virgin, that he had nothing to fear in this regard, and to his credit- Joseph believed.