Do you see them as all being parallel up to Matthew 24:14, Mark 13:13 and Luke 21:19, respectively? In other words, do you see Matthew 24:1-14, Mark 13:1-13 and Luke 21:5-19 as being parallel passages (without all the exact same details)? If so, I don't know why you would not see each of them as continuing to be parallel in the verses which follow each of those verses (Matt 24:15, Mark 13:14 and Luke 21:20 and then beyond those as well).
I just hope that asking me to elaborate isn't going to cause my elaboration to be too long for your preference. I say that only because you complained about my long posts once already in this thread.
Mat 24 Mark 13 and Luke 21 are parallel but they do not give the same details.
(1) The place at which the details given by Luke begins to differ with the details given by Matthew and Mark, is where we see the word BEFORE in Luke 21:12.
IMO Luke is using a very
obvious Markan sandwich in his account, which is missed by most interpreters, because after speaking about the end of the age in response to the disciples' question (verses 5-11),
Luke then switches to Jesus talking about the persecution Jesus' disciples would endure (verses 12-19) BEFORE the things mentioned in verses 8-11 even begin to take place.
Then Luke has Jesus telling them that when they see armies gather around Jerusalem, they must know that its desolation is near, and he tells them what to do about it - and what the result of all that will be (verses 20-24).
From verse 25 onward Luke switches back to Jesus talking about the end of the age and the time of His return.
IMO Luke is using a Markan sandwich, where verses 8-11 and 25-36 are the two pieces of bread which are both talking about the end of the age and time of Jesus' return. In-between the two pieces of bread Luke is speaking about the first century, where the word BEFORE in Luke 21:12 indicates that the persecution Jesus' disciples were going to endure (verses 12-19) would take place even BEFORE Jerusalem was destroyed (verses
12-24).
This WAS their experience, and Nero's persecution erupted and ended even before the temple was destroyed.
(2) I know that you believe that Matthew also uses a Markan sandwich, where you believe verses 15-22 of Matthew 24 don't belong with verses 9-14 and verse 23 onward, but Matthew does not use the word BEFORE in verse 15, but the word THEREFORE, and the conjunctive words used throughout the text of Matthew 24:9-31 do not warrant or support separating verses 15-22 from the rest of the text of Matthew 24, IMO.
We're not going to agree on that.
In verses 10 and 13 of Mark 13, Mark ties the persecution the disciples were warned they will endure, to the gospel first being published among all nations, and to the promise that the one who endures to the end will be saved - the way Matthew's account does.
Then Mark speaks about
the abomination of desolation (singular) standing where it ought not. It follows Matthew's account (or Matthew follows Mark's account, according to some scholars).
I believe the
abominations (plural) mentioned in Daniel 9:26-27 are indeed associated with the destruction of Jerusalem and its temple in AD 70 (I believe those abominations were in the form of continued animal sacrifices for sins made during the 40 years between Christ's crucifixion and AD 70, even while the gospel was being preached by the Jewish disciples).
Nothing else happening to, or occurring in a city and a temple that is not holy unto God constitutes the abominations (plural) that are mentioned in Daniel 9:26-27.
But IMO those abominations are not talking about the same abomination of desolation (singular) mentioned in Daniel's prophecies, and by Jesus in Matthew and Mark's accounts.
In Luke 21:12-24 Luke talks about the persecution the disciples would endure
before the city and temple were destroyed - and the sign Jesus gives of the close of that period of persecutions, is armies gathering against Jerusalem.
Matthew & Mark talk about the tribulation the disciples are to endure at the end of the age - and the sign Jesus gives in their accounts, is an abomination of desolation appearing in the holy place, where it does not belong. I believe it's talking about 2 Thessalonians 2:4 and the biblical type is the abomination of desolation placed in the holy place by A4E in the 2nd century BC.
Can you elaborate on this? How are you concluding that Matthew 24:15-21 implies suddenness? Both passages indicate that once something is seen as happening then those in Judea would need to flee to the mountains. What is the difference between Matthew 24:15-22 and Luke 21:20-24 in relation to the suddenness that the things described in them occur?
Before I elaborate, just so you know I believe that what
@TribulationSigns said to you about the meaning of being on a housetop is highly plausible:
"And
them that worship the host of heaven upon the housetops; and them that worship and that swear by Yhwh, and that swear by Malcham" Zephaniah 1:5.
Luke 12
2 For there is nothing covered, that shall not be revealed; neither hid, that shall not be known.
3 Therefore
whatsoever ye have spoken in darkness shall be heard in the light; and that which ye have spoken in the ear in closets shall be proclaimed upon the housetops.
It's not literal housetops being spoken of. It's a metaphor, as TribulationSigns said. I never saw this before. I'm glad I read his post.
Let alone your
goods in the house, if
the children in the house
were not waiting and watching with you on the housetop, then don't first go trying to call them, because the groom has come, and it's too late for them:
Luke 17:31-32
31 In that day, he which shall be upon the housetop, and his stuff in the house, let him not come down to take it away:
and he that is in the field, let him likewise not return back.
Remember Lot’s wife.
"
Remember Lot’s wife" tells you exactly how suddenly what's mentioned in Matthew 24:21-22 is going to come: "Look! I will come like a thief!
Blessed is the one who stays alert and does not lose his clothes so that he will not have to walk around naked and his shameful condition be seen." Revelation 16:15.
"And the one in the field must not turn back to get his cloak." Matthew 24:18.
Matthew 22
12 And he saith unto him, Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment? And he was speechless.
13 Then said the king to the servants, Bind him hand and foot, and take him away, and cast him into outer darkness;
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
Matthew 24
50 The lord of that servant
shall come in a day when he looketh not for him, and in an hour that he is not aware of,
51 And shall cut him asunder, and appoint him his portion with the hypocrites:
there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
Those who missed the groom are seen in Revelation 6:15-17 - basically "weeping and gnashing their teeth".
With regard to pregnant and nursing mothers, Jesus was talking about those
who would be around to see the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70 (Luke 21:20-24), which is why Jesus used
the same illustration regarding those who will be around to see the coming great tribulation.
It's all illustrations, or metaphorical. Matthew 24:15-22 and Luke 21:20-24 are not talking about the same period. One has occurred. The other is coming.
You won't even acknowledge the grammatical fact that the word "therefore" does not have to refer to the verse or verses which immediately precede that verse (Matt 24:15), but can refer instead to something said previous to those, which is the case is other verses in scripture. Off the top of my head, I know Ephesians 4:1 is an example of that (refers back to Ephesians 3:13 rather than anything in Ephesians 3:14-21). Again, it makes no sense that Jesus would tell the disciples that the temple buildings would be destroyed, but then, for some unknown reason, not be willing to give them any details at all relating to that when they asked about the timing of it. I can't buy that at all.
In the mind of Christ once that veil in the temple was torn (which occurred when He died), the Old was gone and what mattered was only the new creation in Himself which would follow His resurrection from the dead.
He had already pronounced judgment on the city and the desolation of its temple.
His body was all that mattered at the time.
The question was a burden to Jesus. He had already told the Pharisees in the hearing of those who asked Him, that
though they destroy this temple, He would raise it up in three days. Only one Temple's destruction was important enough for Jesus to be thinking about,
and He was soon to sweat blood pleading with the Father if at all possible, to let that cup pass from Him.
The disciples did not understand it at the time, and the reason is understandable. But the fact that you don't understand it today is because of what you for too long have heard being preached from the housetops. Yet even so, you should know.
Your argument about the word "therefore" is just silly IMO. In that case why not have it referring back to the birth-pain signs Jesus had told His disciples not be alarmed about?