"The word was a god"?

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Keiw

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as it says, that there are TWO distinct Persons, the Father and Jesus Christ, Who are equally GOD


Then you must teach--God has a God,( John 20:17, Rev 3:12) and God will be in subjection to God( 1Cor 15: 24-28)= 0 sense-- but reality is Jesus is a god--one with Godlike qualities because God did all the works through him-Acts 2:22, 1Cor 8:5-6
 

Keiw

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It's both tragic and ironic that the Watchtower Society's rank and file door
to-door missionaries go worldwide advertising a kingdom that they
themselves will never be allowed to enter. Here's why.

At John 3:3-12, Christ discusses what he labels "earthly things".

The primary earthly thing discussed was the kingdom of God. The other
earthly thing discussed was a Spirit-birth requirement to enter it. In other
words: God's kingdom on earth, and a Spirit birth, are joined at the hip.

The overwhelming majority of JWs coming to our doors aren't Spirit-born
now, nor do they ever expect to be-- not in this life, nor in the next --yet
they sincerely believe they have a shot at admission to God's kingdom on
earth. However, seeing as how the Spirit-birth requirement is mandatory
rather than optional; they will not succeed.
_


The bible clearly shows-the little flock( Luke 12:32) = 144,000( Rev 14:3) are the bride of Christ, to rule as kings and priests on thrones beside Jesus. The other sheep John 10:16) are the great crowd,Rev 7:9) no man can number--see the little flock is numbered. One is promised heaven, the others are promised earth-Matt 5:5, Psalm 37:9-11,29) the bible assures they will be brought through Armageddon on earth-Prov 2:21-22, Matt 24:22-- The JW,s know fact, because its they who have holy spirit, the rest remain in darkness.
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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Then you must teach--God has a God,( John 20:17, Rev 3:12) and God will be in subjection to God( 1Cor 15: 24-28)= 0 sense-- but reality is Jesus is a god--one with Godlike qualities because God did all the works through him-Acts 2:22, 1Cor 8:5-6

The JW's are very clear in Isaiah 9:6 which is about Jesus Christ, that He is Mighty God. In 10:21, Jehovah is called Mighty God. Both EQUAL.

The Jehovah’s Witnesses Teach Jesus is Mighty God
 

Webers_Home

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FAQ: How can God be multiples of Himself when even Jesus plainly declared
there is only one of God? (John 17:3 cf. Deut 6:4)


REPLY: The Bible also declares that there is only one Man. (Acts 17:26)

God created Man male and female; i.e. two persons. But the two persons do
not represent two Mans. There is only one Man though the one Man is a
binary creature and can be, and is, spoken of with either singular or plural
pronouns. For example in the two passages below, the one Man is spoken of
as "the" and "him" and "them" and "their".

Gen 1:27. . And God proceeded to create the man in His image, in God’s
image He created him; male and female He created them.

Gen 5:2 . . Male and female He created them. After that He blessed them
and called their name Man in the day of their being created.

After God created Adam, he then proceeded to construct Eve with material
taken from Adam's body rather than from the soil as before. That way, Eve
retained Adam's humanness rather than be given a unique humanness of
her own, viz: Eve was in Adam, and he in her.

In a similar manner-- though no doubt quite a bit more complex --God's
son is in God, and God is in His son. i.e. the Son extends the Father just as
Eve extended Adam.

In point of fact, the New Testament verifies (in scientific terms) that the Son
is God's biological progeny, i.e. a being consisting of God similar in manner
to how Eve was a being consisting of Adam.

1John 3:9 . . Everyone who has been born from God does not carry on sin,
because His reproductive seed remains in such one, and he cannot practice
sin, because he has been born from God.

That easily explains how Jesus was able to remain 100% sinless the whole
time he was here.
_
 
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ByGraceThroughFaith

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LOL. No, I reject trinitarianism imposing its doctrine onto unitarian text.

when we read in places like John 1:1, where we have TWO clearly DISTINCT Persons, Who are EQUALLY called GOD, just how can this be Unitarianism? In fact, the Unitarian New Testament by George Noyes, reads here, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God".The New Testament : Noyes, George R. (George Rapall), 1798-1868 : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive. John 1:14, and 1 John 1:1-3, and Revelation 19:13, is clear that "The Word" is Jesus Christ.

We have in Isaiah 9:6, which even those who deny that Jesus Christ is God, as Noyes did, the Jehovah's Witnesses, read "Mighty God", and in chapter 10:21, Jehovah is also called "Mighty God". https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/study-bible/books/isaiah/9/. TWO clearly DISTINCT Persons, Who are EQUALLY called MIGHTY GOD

Many more verses can be produced that shows Unitarianism is a false teaching
 

Wrangler

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when we read in places like John 1:1, where we have TWO clearly DISTINCT Persons, Who are EQUALLY called GOD, just how can this be Unitarianism?
Flawed implied premise. Words are WHAT's not WHO's. John 1:1 refers to an attribute of God, his words, not a different person. You are just confused by figurative language.

Again, v 20:31 clarifies that nothing John wrote can be used to make the argument you are making. This is because everything he wrote was to prove something else. Think about that re-purposing of John's Gospel. The entire reason you have to re-purpose the Gospel of John is because his purpose for writing it does not align with trinitarianism.

The Gospel of John is the most anti-trinitarian book in Scripture. In it, Jesus says he has a God, who is the only true God. Not very trinitarian-like, is it?
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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Flawed implied premise. Words are WHAT's not WHO's. John 1:1 refers to an attribute of God, his words, not a different person. You are just confused by figurative language.

Again, v 20:31 clarifies that nothing John wrote can be used to make the argument you are making. This is because everything he wrote was to prove something else. Think about that re-purposing of John's Gospel. The entire reason you have to re-purpose the Gospel of John is because his purpose for writing it does not align with trinitarianism.

The Gospel of John is the most anti-trinitarian book in Scripture. In it, Jesus says he has a God, who is the only true God. Not very trinitarian-like, is it?

More RUBBISH

It is very clear that Jesus Christ is the Word of God
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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Flawed implied premise. Words are WHAT's not WHO's. John 1:1 refers to an attribute of God, his words, not a different person. You are just confused by figurative language.

Again, v 20:31 clarifies that nothing John wrote can be used to make the argument you are making. This is because everything he wrote was to prove something else. Think about that re-purposing of John's Gospel. The entire reason you have to re-purpose the Gospel of John is because his purpose for writing it does not align with trinitarianism.

The Gospel of John is the most anti-trinitarian book in Scripture. In it, Jesus says he has a God, who is the only true God. Not very trinitarian-like, is it?

your nonsense is exposed by the Infallible Word of God

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being. In Him was life, and the life was the Light of men.

Jesus Christ is from all eternity WITH God the Father, which means that they COEXISTED together from ETERNITY

Jesus Christ is DISTINCT from the Father, Who is GOD, and He Himself is also GOD

Jesus Christ is the Creator of the entire universe, and there is nothing that has been Created , that is not by Him

Jesus Christ is the Giver of all life

None of this can be said of a "non Person"

Try all you like, but you can NEVER win against God's TRUTH!
 

Keiw

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The JW's are very clear in Isaiah 9:6 which is about Jesus Christ, that He is Mighty God. In 10:21, Jehovah is called Mighty God. Both EQUAL.

The Jehovah’s Witnesses Teach Jesus is Mighty God


Actually in Isaiah it says his-NAME will be called those things. Because God gave him a name above other names by doing all the powerful works through him. And at Hebrews 1:3-4 it clearly shows that without inheriting a name above the angels, he is equal to them. No equality, Jehovah is called Almighty God-Jesus never was.
 

ByGraceThroughFaith

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Actually in Isaiah it says his-NAME will be called those things. Because God gave him a name above other names by doing all the powerful works through him. And at Hebrews 1:3-4 it clearly shows that without inheriting a name above the angels, he is equal to them. No equality, Jehovah is called Almighty God-Jesus never was.


"And ALL of the Creation, which is in the heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and on the sea, and all things that are in them, heard I saying, to Him Who sits on the throne, and unto the Lamb, be ALL the blessing, and ALL the honour, and ALL the glory, and ALL the might, for ever and ever. And the four living creatures said, Amen. And the elders fell down and worshipped." (Revelation 5:13-14. so emphasized in the Greek)

Note the words, “τω καθημενω επι του θρονου και τω αρνιω”, “to Him Who sits on the throne AND to the Lamb”, where the Greek conjunction, “και”, is used for “sameness”, with absolute equality. Thus, we read in chapter 22, verse 1: “And he showed me a river of water of life, bright as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb”. The Greek here is very important, “του θρονου του θεου και του αρνιου”, where “του θρονου” (the throne), is in the singular number. God and the Lamb, as “distinct” Persons, are united in Their Rule. This absolute unity, can also be seen in chapter 11:15, “And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of His Christ; and He shall Reign for ever and ever”. Note the end, “He shall Reign”, which in the Greek is, “βασιλευσει”, which is in the singular number. It can refer to “His Christ”, or, to “our Lord and of His Christ”, the latter no doubt being the correct meaning, as seen from the main passage from chapter 5, and 22. Let no one suppose that there is some “subordination” with Jesus Christ to the Father, post-Incarnation, as this is proven as completely wrong from these passages in Revelation.

These passages are some of the strongest and clearest in the Holy Bible, that speak of the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ. It also shows His equality with the Father, and further teaches that there are Two Persons in Scripture, Who are equally Almighty God. We read, "to Him Who (Gk, toi) sits on the throne, and to the (Gk, toi) Lamb". Where it is very clear from the Greek text, that two DISTINCT Persons are spoken of, God the Father, and God the Son (the Lamb).

Verse 13 speaks of "every created thing which is in the heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and on the sea, and all things that are in them", which is nothing less than the entirety of the human race, "every created thing", with no exceptions. Here the entire universe ascribes "THE blessing, and THE honour, and THE glory, and THE Might", where in the Greek text, the "article [the]" is repeated with each word, signifying, "whatever blessing, and honour, and glory, and might", there is in the entire universe, as in ALL blessings, honour, glory, might, is here said to belong "to Him that sits on the throne", which is God the Father in this case. So, let us be clear here what is being taught; that, ALL, "THE blessing, and ALL THE honour, and ALL THE glory, and ALL THE might", are said EQUALLY to belong to God the Father, and God the Son. In the Book of Isaiah we read these words: "to whom will ye liken me, and make me equal, and compare me, that we may be like? (46:5), and in 42:8, "I am Jehovah, that is my name; and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise unto graven images". It is very clear from these passages, that Almighty God would never "share" His glory, praise with another, nor can He ever be compared with, or made equal with anyone. And yet, in the passage in Revelation, this is exactly what the Apostle John, writing under the guiding of the Holy Spirit, has done! It would be nothing short of blasphemy, for the Apostle John, to have written as he did in Revelation 5:13-14, IF, Jesus Christ was a created being, as some, like the Jehovah's Witnesses falsely teach. How can the Almighty Creator God, be EVER "share" the " blessings, and honour, and glory, and might", with a someone Whom He created? Can the Creator be said to be EQUAL with His creation, IF as some blaspheme, that Jesus is a created being? Jesus Himself says in the Gospel of John, "My Father works until now, and I work" (5:17), which the Jews rightly understood as Jesus "making Himself equal (Gk, isos, "the same in quality". J H Thayer, Greek-English lexicon; "to claim for one's self the nature, rank, authority, which belongs to God, Jn. v.18", p.307. Thayer was a Unitarian, who, like the Jehovah's Witnesses, denied the Deity of Jesus Christ) to God (toi theoi)", because He had called God, "His OWN Father" (verse 18). Thus is their relationship. And in verse 23, Jesus says something that ONLY someone who was coequal to the Father could ever have said. We read: "That everyone (all humans) should honour (Gk, time, "worship, esteem, honour") the Son, even as (Gk, kathos, "just as, even as", indicating comparision) they honour the Father. He that does not honour the Son, does not honour the Father Who sent Him". Can a created being demand that SAME honour that God the Father is given? Regardless of highly exalted Jesus Christ might have been, if He were a created being, there is NO way that He could ever have used language as He does here, without blaspheming. Even as the Incarnate Son of God, Jesus Christ demanded EQUAL “HONOUR” with the Father, though He says that “The Father is greater than I” (John 14:28). Here is indeed a Great Mystery!

John then goes on to say in verse 14, “And the elders fell down and WORSHIPPED”. This “worship” is here directed to BOTH, “to Him Who sits on the throne, AND unto the Lamb”, which further shows that Jesus Christ, post-Incarnation, is 100% COEQUAL, with God the Father, and in the Godhead, His Deity is no “less”, in any way, than the Father. The fact that BOTH are WORSHIPPED TOGETHER, can only be understood to Their being also COESSENTIAL

Also, in Revelation 1:17, and 2:8, we read of Jesus Christ say of Himself, that He is, "the first and the last". Thayer says of the words, " ὁ πρῶτος καί ὁ ἔσχατος, i.e. the eternal One" (page, 554). Which can ONLY mean that Jesus Christ is UNCREATED, and ETERNAL. Add to this the words of Jesus Christ in chapter 22, “I am THE Alpha and THE Omega, THE First and THE Last, THE Beginning and THE End”. In Isaiah 44:6, we read, “Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: “I am THE First and I am THE Last; besides me there is no god”. It is not only impossible for Jesus to have said these words about Himself, IF, as some teach, that He is no more than a mere “created” being, but, it would also be the highest form of blasphemy. However, we are confident from what we read in the Infallible Word of God, that there can be no doubt, that Jesus Christ, IS indeed ALMIGHTY GOD, without beginning or end, as are God the Father, and God the Holy Spirit.


Jesus Christ IS The Great I AM, Yahweh, Almighty God.
 

PinSeeker

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And it’s those core teachings shared by the disunited churches of “Christendom” that we would argue are not biblical in origin. We cannot find a trinity, immortality of the soul, or hellfire in any teaching that God gave his people, past or present.
Such is your opinion, I understand. And I respect it, but Scripture says otherwise, even the opposite. And of course you will say that's my opinion, and I'm... okay with that. :)

The term “Christendom” was not invented by us....it’s actually in the dictionary.
Sure. And people mean different things by it. You use it derisively, to disparage ~ frankly speaking, to tear others down in order to build yourself up. I'm... okay with that, too. :) But it's... not humble, which ~ oh, there are so many Scriptures I could point out but will refer to only two ~ as Christians we are called to: the prophet Micah says that the LORD requires us to do justice, and to love kindness, and to walk humbly with Him (Micah 6:8), and Paul tells us to have the mind of Christ, Who emptied Himself, humbled Himself even to the point of death, even death on a cross.

We proudly claim to be no part of Christendom.
Okay. Such is neither here nor there to me, really. If one is not a believer in Christ and a follower of Him, trusting in His promise that they will one day be just like Him ~ this would be their chief desire ~ then, with regard to eternity, that's a problem.

And as I said...that is the problem...from our perspective, they all share the same falsehoods. I was raised with those beliefs and I always wondered why none of them ever sat well with me. No one I asked could give me the clear biblical explanation for any of them. I was always a questioner, so only a rational and logical explanation that was squarely Bible based would suffice. I found people who had what I was looking for....solidly based scriptural answers that were in line with what the whole Bible taught, from Genesis to Revelation.
Hm. Well, I would say at least very closely the same about myself. But as Paul says, "the time is coming..." ~ is here now, of course ~ "...when people will not endure sound teaching, but having itching ears they will accumulate for themselves teachers to suit their own passions, and will turn away from listening to the truth and wander off into myths" (2 Timothy 2:4). I understand that you fully recognize what Paul is saying, and it is what it is. You will of course turn that around and direct that at me; so be it.

See, this is what I mean....what did Peter “truly mean” when he identified Jesus as “the son of the living God”? What does someone mean when they call you the son of your father?
Ah! So glad you posed both of those questions consecutively. You will disagree, I'm sure, but you're equating the temporal with the eternal, the natural with the supernatural. As Isaiah says, quoting God, "'For My thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways My ways,' declares the LORD. 'For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are My ways higher than your ways, and My thoughts than your thoughts'" (Isaiah 55:8-9) And I'll add again, that, quite obviously, Christ's being the Son of God cannot mean merely that His is the Father's offspring in the human sense, as my son is... well, my son... :)... because (among other things), as Christ Himself calls Himself on several occasions, He is also the Son of Man.

Did Peter disagree with the other apostles whom Paul clearly identified as a collective in 1 Corinthians 8:5-6....
“For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”— yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.” (ESV)
Does this sound like the first century “saints”, (speaking on behalf of their fellow believers) recognised Jesus as their “one God”? Seems very clear to me that their “one God” was “the Father”, not their Lord (a title of respect) Jesus.
This is taken out of context. There was a belief among many Corinthians in many Gods and many Lords. Paul was refuting that, saying there is only one, and ~ ironically, concerning Jehovah's Witnesses, as they point this so often in support of their own views ~ was referring directly to Deuteronomy, as He did so often throughout his various letters, specifically Deuteronomy 6:4, "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one." And, "Lord" is not merely a title of respect. It certainly is that, but far more. And both the Father and Jesus are called Lord, as well as God, in various places in Scripture.

If they were not to be understood as a “father and son” relationship that humans recognised, why call themselves by those designations?
See above.

In his pre-human existence, the spirit being who became Jesus Christ was always God’s “firstborn son”. He is the “firstborn of ALL creation”
Yes, in the same sense that David ~ Jesus is the Greater David ~ was made firstborn of all of his older brothers and even over all of Israel as king, preeminent over Israel. This is Paul's whole context in Colossians 1, that Jesus is the firstborn ~ preeminent over all His creation. As John says, "All things were made through Him, and without Him was not any thing made that was made," (John 1:3), and Paul says, "For by Him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities ~ all things were created through Him and for Him." (Colossians 1:16).

...which makes him part of that creation.
Absolutely not; such is a direct refutation of what John and Paul say immediately above.

He is the unique “son of God”...
Yes, and the Son of Man. See above.

...being the first and only direct creation of his Father...
Again, a direct refutation of John and Paul above, among others.

Not once did Jesus ever claim to be God.
You keep saying that, and surely such is your prerogative. I say all of Scripture, from Genesis 1 to Revelation 22, proclaims it. We will agree to disagree.

...yet still (this debate) rages.
Sure. That it does.

I have been on both sides and I find the side I have taken to be the most clearly in line with what the entirety of scripture teaches.
Sure, well, again, there is what Paul says in 2 Timothy 2:4... Jesus will set it all to rights when He returns.

Grace and peace to you.
 

Keiw

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"And ALL of the Creation, which is in the heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and on the sea, and all things that are in them, heard I saying, to Him Who sits on the throne, and unto the Lamb, be ALL the blessing, and ALL the honour, and ALL the glory, and ALL the might, for ever and ever. And the four living creatures said, Amen. And the elders fell down and worshipped." (Revelation 5:13-14. so emphasized in the Greek)

Note the words, “τω καθημενω επι του θρονου και τω αρνιω”, “to Him Who sits on the throne AND to the Lamb”, where the Greek conjunction, “και”, is used for “sameness”, with absolute equality. Thus, we read in chapter 22, verse 1: “And he showed me a river of water of life, bright as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb”. The Greek here is very important, “του θρονου του θεου και του αρνιου”, where “του θρονου” (the throne), is in the singular number. God and the Lamb, as “distinct” Persons, are united in Their Rule. This absolute unity, can also be seen in chapter 11:15, “And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of His Christ; and He shall Reign for ever and ever”. Note the end, “He shall Reign”, which in the Greek is, “βασιλευσει”, which is in the singular number. It can refer to “His Christ”, or, to “our Lord and of His Christ”, the latter no doubt being the correct meaning, as seen from the main passage from chapter 5, and 22. Let no one suppose that there is some “subordination” with Jesus Christ to the Father, post-Incarnation, as this is proven as completely wrong from these passages in Revelation.

These passages are some of the strongest and clearest in the Holy Bible, that speak of the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ. It also shows His equality with the Father, and further teaches that there are Two Persons in Scripture, Who are equally Almighty God. We read, "to Him Who (Gk, toi) sits on the throne, and to the (Gk, toi) Lamb". Where it is very clear from the Greek text, that two DISTINCT Persons are spoken of, God the Father, and God the Son (the Lamb).

Verse 13 speaks of "every created thing which is in the heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and on the sea, and all things that are in them", which is nothing less than the entirety of the human race, "every created thing", with no exceptions. Here the entire universe ascribes "THE blessing, and THE honour, and THE glory, and THE Might", where in the Greek text, the "article [the]" is repeated with each word, signifying, "whatever blessing, and honour, and glory, and might", there is in the entire universe, as in ALL blessings, honour, glory, might, is here said to belong "to Him that sits on the throne", which is God the Father in this case. So, let us be clear here what is being taught; that, ALL, "THE blessing, and ALL THE honour, and ALL THE glory, and ALL THE might", are said EQUALLY to belong to God the Father, and God the Son. In the Book of Isaiah we read these words: "to whom will ye liken me, and make me equal, and compare me, that we may be like? (46:5), and in 42:8, "I am Jehovah, that is my name; and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise unto graven images". It is very clear from these passages, that Almighty God would never "share" His glory, praise with another, nor can He ever be compared with, or made equal with anyone. And yet, in the passage in Revelation, this is exactly what the Apostle John, writing under the guiding of the Holy Spirit, has done! It would be nothing short of blasphemy, for the Apostle John, to have written as he did in Revelation 5:13-14, IF, Jesus Christ was a created being, as some, like the Jehovah's Witnesses falsely teach. How can the Almighty Creator God, be EVER "share" the " blessings, and honour, and glory, and might", with a someone Whom He created? Can the Creator be said to be EQUAL with His creation, IF as some blaspheme, that Jesus is a created being? Jesus Himself says in the Gospel of John, "My Father works until now, and I work" (5:17), which the Jews rightly understood as Jesus "making Himself equal (Gk, isos, "the same in quality". J H Thayer, Greek-English lexicon; "to claim for one's self the nature, rank, authority, which belongs to God, Jn. v.18", p.307. Thayer was a Unitarian, who, like the Jehovah's Witnesses, denied the Deity of Jesus Christ) to God (toi theoi)", because He had called God, "His OWN Father" (verse 18). Thus is their relationship. And in verse 23, Jesus says something that ONLY someone who was coequal to the Father could ever have said. We read: "That everyone (all humans) should honour (Gk, time, "worship, esteem, honour") the Son, even as (Gk, kathos, "just as, even as", indicating comparision) they honour the Father. He that does not honour the Son, does not honour the Father Who sent Him". Can a created being demand that SAME honour that God the Father is given? Regardless of highly exalted Jesus Christ might have been, if He were a created being, there is NO way that He could ever have used language as He does here, without blaspheming. Even as the Incarnate Son of God, Jesus Christ demanded EQUAL “HONOUR” with the Father, though He says that “The Father is greater than I” (John 14:28). Here is indeed a Great Mystery!

John then goes on to say in verse 14, “And the elders fell down and WORSHIPPED”. This “worship” is here directed to BOTH, “to Him Who sits on the throne, AND unto the Lamb”, which further shows that Jesus Christ, post-Incarnation, is 100% COEQUAL, with God the Father, and in the Godhead, His Deity is no “less”, in any way, than the Father. The fact that BOTH are WORSHIPPED TOGETHER, can only be understood to Their being also COESSENTIAL

Also, in Revelation 1:17, and 2:8, we read of Jesus Christ say of Himself, that He is, "the first and the last". Thayer says of the words, " ὁ πρῶτος καί ὁ ἔσχατος, i.e. the eternal One" (page, 554). Which can ONLY mean that Jesus Christ is UNCREATED, and ETERNAL. Add to this the words of Jesus Christ in chapter 22, “I am THE Alpha and THE Omega, THE First and THE Last, THE Beginning and THE End”. In Isaiah 44:6, we read, “Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: “I am THE First and I am THE Last; besides me there is no god”. It is not only impossible for Jesus to have said these words about Himself, IF, as some teach, that He is no more than a mere “created” being, but, it would also be the highest form of blasphemy. However, we are confident from what we read in the Infallible Word of God, that there can be no doubt, that Jesus Christ, IS indeed ALMIGHTY GOD, without beginning or end, as are God the Father, and God the Holy Spirit.


Jesus Christ IS The Great I AM, Yahweh, Almighty God.


The LORD(YHWH) said to my Lord(Jesus) proves Jesus is not YHWH.
Even the Catholic encyclopedia says in most instances in the NT about the Holy spirit, it is not as a living being.
Here are the bible facts
The Father has a name-YHWH(Jehovah) the son has a name-Jesus-Holy spirit= 0
The Father sits on a throne, the son sits on a throne, Holy spirit= 0
The Father gets honor and glory, he shares both with the son, Holy spirit= 0
Passage after passage mentions God separate from Jesus-holy spirit-0- all 3 only mentioned in a single verse together.
 

Keiw

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The bible never claims that. Jesus isnt called almighty in a single instance. Only YHWH is. The one Jesus calls his God and Father-John 20:17, Rev 3:12--as does Paul-Coll 1:3, Eph 1:13,17, 2Cor 1:3--and Peter teaches the Father is Jesus' God-1Pet 1:3-- Try believing Jesus and the bible writers. Everyone of them served the Abrahamic God-a single being God named YHWH(Jehovah) 100% truth. To this day the Israelite religion serve that single being God.
 
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Webers_Home

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.
When meerkats reproduce, they don't beget mice, rather, they beget
meerkats, i.e. more of their own species. When sparrows reproduce, they
don't beget bullfrogs, rather, they beget sparrows, i.e. more of their own
species. When coyotes reproduce, they don't beget pythons, rather, they
beget coyotes, i.e. more of their own species. When humans reproduce, they
don't beget mushrooms, rather, they beget humans, i.e. more of their own
species.

Were God to reproduce, He wouldn't beget an angel, rather, He would beget
God, i.e. more of His own species.

The Watchtower Society's theology hangs by its fingernails on their
understanding just one term in the New Testament: they dare not concede
that "only begotten son" indicates literal reproduction because the damage it
would do to their doctrine relative to Christ's status would be devastating
with repercussions going all the way back to Charles Taze Russell and
Joseph Franklin Rutherford.


FAQ: God is a spirit being. Were He to reproduce, wouldn't God beget a
spirit being rather than a material being, i.e. more of His own species?


REPLY: Yes.

1Cor 15:45 . .The first man Adam became a living soul. The last Adam
became a life-giving spirit.


FAQ: How is it possible for someone to exist as a spirit being and a material
being simultaneously?


REPLY: I haven't a clue; and freely admit this is one of the supernatural
elements of the Christian religion that makes no sense to me whatsoever.
_
 
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