Three Days and Three Nights

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Davy

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For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.” (Matt 12:40)

It is clear from the Scriptures that Jesus rose on the first day of the week (Mark 16:2), and also that this was "the third day" after his death (Luke 24:21, 46; 1 Cor. 15:4; also Lev. 23:11). It follows that he must have been crucified on a Friday.

Nonsense.

A count back from Sunday morning to Friday (day) doesn't equal the 3 days and 3 nights.

Sunday dawn - He had risen before the dawn per Matt.28.
Saturday dawn - 2nd day
Friday dawn - 1st day

That above count is nonsense. It doesn't account for the 3 nights either, which are 3 each 12 hour periods too.

The real count:

Wednesday, Nisan 14th, preparation day, Jesus crucified, rush to bury His body.
1st night, Thursday, Nisan 15th, High Sabbath, sunset to dawn.
1st day, Thursday, Nisan 15th, High Sabbath, dawn to sunset.
2nd night, Friday, Nisan 16th, sunset to dawn.
2nd day, Friday, Nisan 16th, dawn to sunset.
3rd night, Saturday, Nisan 17th, weekly sabbath, sunset to dawn.
3rd day, Saturday, Nisan 17th, weekly sabbath, dawn to sunset.
First Day of Week, Sunday, Jesus rose, and the two Marys came to the tomb.



Once again, men's traditions are more important to some men instead of the actual Truth in God's Word.
 
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Harvest 1874

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I do not agree with your wording, that Satan had dominion over Jesus Christ.

Taken

Apparently I did not word this as well as I should have, I did not mean to infer that Satan had control over our Lord in the sense in which he had dominion over him (that he ruled him), but in the sense in which he was given control of our Lord’s life through his deluded servants, to which our Lord willingly submitted. “My flesh ... I will give for the life of the world (John 6:51). The Son of man came ... to give his life a ransom (Matt 20:28).

Jesus' death was a voluntary act. While men might seem to have taken his life by crucifying him, yet they were mistaken; in reality, "no man takes it from me."

Satan could not take the Lord’s life unless it was given him, as our Lord so stated in John 10:17, 18Therefore My Father loves me, because I lay down my life that I may take it again. No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power (the right) to lay it down, and I have power (the right) to take it again. This commandment [authority or power] I have received from My Father.”

The word "power" is derived from exousia which means: "power of choice", "liberty of doing as one pleases"; "leave" or "permission" (Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon). Note Jesus' reference to himself as a voluntary sacrifice.

In what way was this power of choice given our Lord, it was given by the unchangeable God who said, “You shall therefore keep my statutes and my judgments (i.e. the Law), which if a man does, he shall live by them: I am the Lord.”

That is to say anyone who would fulfill the Law perfectly would live forever, have everlasting life. Our Lord did this very thing completely fulfilling the Law and as such was entitled to everlasting life. This perfect life he surrendered on our behalf.
 
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rstrats

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Taken,
re: "If you are counting in your words; "part of the crucifixion", as ANY PART of the time Jesus' body was ON THE CROSS..."


I didn't say "part of the crucifixion" and stop there. I said "part of the crucifixion day's night time". In your post #410, you counted the night time of crucifixion day as one of the three night times even though the night time had been over at least 8 to 9 hours by the time of the Messiah's death.
 
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Andre

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Hi Raeneske,

You said:
"Jesus died on the preparation day, which is the day before the Sabbath. This would happen to be day #6. He was then moved to the grave on that day, before the Sabbath had come, because they did not want bodies on the cross during the Sabbath Day. That day counts as one day. The Next day was the Sabbath Day, and we see the women rested the Sabbath Day according to the commandment. That would be the Seventh Day, as Exodus 20:8-11 shares with us, which would be Friday sunset to Saturday sunset. This isn’t the day Jesus rises. This is the second day that he is buried. Then, we see the woman after the Sabbath had past bought spices that they may anoint the body. And very early the first day of the week, they went to the scepulcre. On this first day of the week, Jesus rises. That is the third day."


Yeshua did not die the day before the 7th day Sabbath, he died the day before the High Sabbath which was the first day of Unleavened Bread. The 1st and last day of U.B. are both High Sabbaths. The Passover lamb was slaughtered in the afternoon of the 14th, the first day of U.B was the 15th at evening and went until the 21st of Abib, also a High Sabbath day, and ended when evening came and was approaching the 22nd. Afternoon of the 14th was Passover, evening of the 15th would have been the start of U.B. which ended the following evening just before the 16th. Then the regular 7th day Sabbath started the evening of the 16th and continued until just before the evening of the 17th started, which was the Day Yeshua rose.

Hi Elle, I agree with your belief. There is just one point I would like to clear up. You said: "he died the day before the High Sabbath which was the first day of Unleavened Bread." Do you mean that the day before the High Sabbath is the first day of UB? Or do you mean the High Sabbath is the first day of UB?
 
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Andre

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Of all the replies I agree with yours, the Wednesday to Saturday sunset time frame. I don't agree with the year since the lunar phase was such that the first of Nisan no lunar crescent was sighted, but that's a different topic.

Discussions like this result when people strayed from Yahweh's calendar so they all have to put in their two cents thinking they are correct.

Matthew 12:40 states a full 3 days and 3 nights in the tomb, not counting from when he's dead. The other "models" reckon the 3 days from the time of his death, which is unscriptural.

Yahshua fulfilled the feast days at their exact time., i.e.
Late Nisan 14: crucified as the Lamb of Yahweh for Passover.
Nisan 15: Start of the first day in the tomb (Unleavened Bread immediately following). Now 3 full calendar days is simple to figure. That's 15+3=18, 3 days later.
Nisan18: Firstfruits. We know that Firstfruits always occurred on a Sunday, so if the 18th of the month is Sunday, then what does that make the 15th and 14th, what days of the week? Simple as that. So he arose Saturday late in the day by our reckoning as the 17th closed and the 18th dawned for Firstfruits.

It's all in the prophetic feasts, and the calendar.

Hi, I agree 100%.
 

rstrats

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Andre,
re: "Is it not true that... Jesus was Crucified ...at about the 9th hour (3pm)?"

Actually, Mark 15:25 says it was the third hour.


re: "Is not the High Sabbath the 1st day of UB? The 15th?"

Not according to Mark 14:12 which says; "Now on the first day of Unleavened Bread, when they killed the Passover lamb, His disciples said to Him, 'where do You want us to go and prepare, that You may eat the Passover?'"
 

Truth

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I'm not sure why you think 30AD was the only candidate year Yashua Messiah was to be crucified. No historian totally agrees on the year. The most common span of years considered by historians is usually between 26AD and 36AD.

Now, using any astronomy program, one can turn back the hands of time to 30AD and see what day of the week new moon was likely sighted. This can be dalayed a day for weather, but if calculations show that a new moon was not capable of being sighted on the day in question, then we can be certain that Passover did not occur on a Wednesday of that year, which is the case. In other words, two weeks earlier the moon was a little before conjuction, or such a place that it could not be seen.

However, I don't really want to make the year an issue per se. What I am saying is whatever year Yahshua was crucified, it occurred on a Wednesday just as you stated.

I Totally Agree one must take the time to research, and understand Two thing's. Our Creator's Calendar, and the way the Feast's are established, starting with Passover. Very Very Important to understand! that is why God Commanded the Feast's.
 

epostle1

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Three days and three nights is a Hebrew idiom, it does not mean 3- 24 hour periods.

The phrase “one day and one night” meant a day, even when only a part of a day was indicated. We see this, e.g., in 1 Sam 30:12-13 (cf. Gen 42:17-18).

We know that Jesus was crucified on a Friday because Scripture tells us that the Sabbath (Saturday) as approaching (e.g., Mt 27:62, Mk 15:42, Lk 23:54, Jn 19:31 – the “day of preparation” is Friday, the day before the Sabbath: Saturday, and the Sabbath was considered to begin on sundown on Friday, as with Jews to this day).

We know that Jesus was crucified on a Friday because Scripture tells us that the Sabbath (Saturday) as approaching (e.g., Mt 27:62, Mk 15:42, Lk 23:54, Jn 19:31 – the “day of preparation” is Friday, the day before the Sabbath: Saturday, and the Sabbath was considered to begin on sundown on Friday, as with Jews to this day).

We also know from the biblical data that the discovery of His Resurrection was on a Sunday (e.g., Mk 16:1-2-,9, Mt 28:1, Lk 24:1, Jn 20:1). And we know that “three days and three nights” (Mt 12:40) is synonymous in the Hebrew mind and the Bible with “after three days” ((Mk 8:31) and “on the third day” (Mt 16:21, 1 Cor 15:4). Most references to the Resurrection say that it happened on the third day. In John 2:19-22, Jesus said that He would be raised up in three days (not on the fourth day).

It would be like saying, “This is the third day I’ve been working on painting this room.” I could have started painting late Friday and made this remark on early Sunday. If I complete the task on Sunday, then the chronology would be just as Jesus’ Resurrection was. The only difference is the Hebrew idiom “three days and three nights” which was not intended in the hyper-literal sense as we might mistakenly interpret it today.

In fact, to say that Jesus was crucified on a Wednesday or Thursday afternoon (apart from the biblical difficulties of this assertion) will not solve this problem for those who wish to interpret hyper-literally without taking into account idiomatic and non-literal, non-“scientific” expression. The only way to get three literal 24-hour days would be for Jesus to rise at the same time He was crucified, and then (technically) He would be rising at the beginning of a fourth 24-hour day, whereas the Bible says this happened on the “third” day.

But He died at about 3 PM (Mt 27:46, Lk 23:44-46: “the ninth hour” is 3 PM, because it was figured by the Jews from 6 AM). So a literal “three 24-hour day” interpretation of a Wednesday crucifixion would have Jesus rising at Saturday at 3 PM, and a Thursday crucifixion would have a Sunday, 3 PM Resurrection (or the discovery of same, at any rate). The Bible, however, has the disciples discovering that the Lord had risen early on Sunday morning (Lk 23:56: they rested on the Sabbath; Lk 24:1: at “early dawn, they went to the tomb”); so early, in Mary Magdalene’s case, that it was still dark (Jn 20:1).

The understanding of idiom explains all this. For both the ancient Jews (6 PM to 6 PM days) and Romans (who reckoned days from midnight to midnight), the way to refer to three separate 24-hour days (in whole or in part) was to say “days and nights.”

We speak similarly in English idiom – just without adding the “nights” part. For example, we will say that we are off for a long weekend vacation, of “three days of fun” (Friday through Sunday or Saturday through Monday). But it is understood that this is not three full 24-hour days. Chances are we will depart part way through the first day and return before the third day ends. So for a Saturday through Monday vacation, if we leave at 8 AM on Saturday and return at 10 PM on Monday night, literally that is less than three full days (it would be two 24-hour days and 14 more hours: ten short of three full days).

Yet we speak of a “three-day vacation” and that we returned “after three days” or “on the third day.” A literal “three 24-hour day trip” would end at 8 AM on Tuesday. Such descriptions are understood, then, as non-literal. The ancient Jews and Romans simply added the clause “and nights” to such utterances, but understood them in the same way, as referring to any part of a whole 24-hour day.

Thus the “problem” or so-called “biblical contradiction” vanishes.

http://www.patheos.com/blogs/davear...-3-days-nights-in-the-tomb-contradiction.html
 

rstrats

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The topic title was poorly conceived with regard to the intent of the topic. Unfortunately the title couldn't be edited once it was posted. However, It was clarified in subsequent posts. Again, the topic request for examples is with regard to the commonality of forecasting a daytime or a night time when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could occur.
 

verzanumi24

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Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6[sup]th[/sup] day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase "x" days and "x"nights was ever used in the first century or before when it didn’t include at least parts of the "x" days and at least parts of the "x" nights?

They are unwilling to repent when they are confronted with the truth. So they come up with reason to justify why they do, like all the other excuses they make when the truth is shown to them. But the fact is, a day makes up 24 hours, and a day in the Bible starts at sunset and ends at sunset.
 

epostle1

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They are unwilling to repent when they are confronted with the truth. So they come up with reason to justify why they do, like all the other excuses they make when the truth is shown to them. But the fact is, a day makes up 24 hours, and a day in the Bible starts at sunset and ends at sunset.
Is it because you are anti-Semitic? Do you despise everything about the Jews? You deny Hebrew idiom, a day is not always 24 hours. This has been explained in detail. A 24 hour day for the idiom 3 days and three nights doesn't work. "They are unwilling to repent when they are confronted with the truth." What a joke.
 

verzanumi24

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Is it because you are anti-Semitic? Do you despise everything about the Jews? You deny Hebrew idiom, a day is not always 24 hours. This has been explained in detail. A 24 hour day for the idiom 3 days and three nights doesn't work. "They are unwilling to repent when they are confronted with the truth." What a joke.

LOL.You must be a comedian. I didn't know the sun sets differently in Jerusalem than it does everywhere else.
 

FHII

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"Three days and three nights" is NOT a Hebrew idiom! This is a falsehood that has been around AT LEAST from the days of John Calvin. He too believed it was and idiom and I believe Martin Luther said the same. But its not true!

People who believe it is an idiom point to the book of Ruth, but a careful reading does not prove its an idiom. In that case 3 days and 3 nights refers to the fast, not when Ruth went to see the king. Fasts were EXACT. it might be extended just to be sure, but they weren't ended early... Not even by a few minutes.

But aside from that... Please look at the link below from a Jewish Rabbi about this so called idiom. He clearly debunks it.

http://m.tzion.org/site/articles/threedays.html