Mk 16:16 acts 8:36-37 both faith and baptism acts 2:28-39 promise of the father from ez 36:25-27@Pearl In Acts 2.41, the new believers were baptized because they were believers, not supposedly in order to become believers...
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Mk 16:16 acts 8:36-37 both faith and baptism acts 2:28-39 promise of the father from ez 36:25-27@Pearl In Acts 2.41, the new believers were baptized because they were believers, not supposedly in order to become believers...
Actually faith does justify all by itself. That's Paul's argument. Paul is referring to being justified (made righteous) by faith without works.faith alone, all by itself, does not justify... James 2.
Romans 5:1------faith>>>>>>>>>>justifiedActually faith does justify all by itself. That's Paul's argument. Paul is referring to being justified (made righteous) by faith without works.
James is referring to being justified (shown to be righteous) by what you do.
Paul and James are making two different arguments about justification, not contradictory arguments about justification as many people argue.
If you do not believe there are these two different definitions and usages of the word 'justified', click here: justify
Besides, in context, you can see that Paul is talking about being made righteous by faith (Romans 3:22), and that James is talking about showing the righteousness you have by faith by what you do (James 2:18).
Abraham was made righteous through his faith all by itself without works. Abraham showed he had that righteousness by what he did.
I completely agree with this, but what you write doesn't mean anything if you're not going to explain which definition of 'justified' you think each is using. Then we can know if what you say lines up with and agrees with James and Paul each have to say about justification.
What you aren't doing is examining whether 'justified' means the same thing in Romans 4 as it does in James 2. That's where you're going wrong. Examining the faith issue itself will not get you anywhere.If "faith" and "faith only" were the same thing then both would justify or neither would justify.
What it proves is 'justified' is the point that is not the same thing! That's where you're dropping the ball on this matter. I don't blame you. I blame a misinformed leadership that is supposed to know the difference between Paul's justification and James' justification and doesn't!The fact "faith" justifies and "faith only" does not justify prove they are not the same...
...just not as the agent of justification itself. But, surely, genuine faith will produce works.The faith Paul says justifies in Romans 5:1 includes obedience:
justified means just-as-if-I'd never done it. In Romans 6:17-18 Paul says one obeys from the then free from sin with free from sin = justified, God erases the sins as if a person had never committed those sins.I completely agree with this, but what you write doesn't mean anything if you're not going to explain which definition of 'justified' you think each is using. Then we can know if what you say lines up with and agrees with James and Paul each have to say about justification.
The same Greek word is used in both texts. There is nothing in either context that shows justified is being used differently, that takes a theological bias.What you aren't doing is examining whether 'justified' means the same thing in Romans 4 as it does in James 2. That's where you're going wrong. Examining the faith issue itself will not get you anywhere.
You have CLAIMED Paul and James are using the word justified differently but have not shown proof.What it proves is 'justified' is the point that is not the same thing! That's where you're dropping the ball on this matter. I don't blame you. I blame a misinformed leadership that is supposed to know the difference between Paul's justification and James' justification and doesn't!
The question would be, Justified to whom?What you aren't doing is examining whether 'justified' means the same thing in Romans 4 as it does in James 2. That's where you're going wrong. Examining the faith issue itself will not get you anywhere.
There is no justification apart from obeying God...just not as the agent of justification itself. But, surely, genuine faith will produce works.
It's there. Context.The same Greek word is used in both texts. There is nothing in either context that shows justified is being used differently, that takes a theological bias.
It's there. Context.
The word means the same, the question is, to whom are we justified? God doesn't need proof of the genuineness of our faith, He already knows.
Much love!
I agree. There is no justification, in regard to the particular definition of justified that James is using, apart from obeying God.There is no justification apart from obeying God
Being a 'faith only-ists', as you put it, simply means a man is made righteous, not by doing righteous works (that's literally the works gospel condemned in scripture), but by believing that the blood of Christ is the atonement for one's sins, and so being made righteous in God's sight that way.Faith only-ists err when they continually think obedience to God's will is earning God's free gift.
That is literally the works gospel that is condemned in scripture. Instead of doing righteous things and offering that righteousness up to God, you receive God's righteousness by believing in His promise of forgiveness through the blood of his Son, thus having your unrighteousness removed, and having it replaced with His righteousness.They first had to repent and do righteousness in order for them to be righteous before God.