What benefit does it produce to make Jesus God

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Peterlag

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I can't get anyone to answer this honest question. All I get back is because the Bible says so. But there must be a reason for it. What is it? Here I will give you a reason why he had to be a man.

Romans says a man (Adam) caused sin to enter into the world, and also that a man would have to redeem it from sin. Romans 5:15 says “For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many.” The Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).

Now it's your turn. Anyone?
 

dhh712

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He is man too. 100% man and 100% God. He had to be God too because only God is perfect; there is no mere man--who is not also God--who is perfect. No one else could have provided the perfect sacrifice required of God to make propitiation for our sins (the sacrifices described in Leviticus, those animals "without blemish" pointed to the ultimate sacrifice that Jesus would embody). Since all men are born into sin, being born just a man would automatically disqualify Jesus from being the ultimate atonement for our sins.

If Jesus is not also God, we are still dead in our sins. If one does not trust in a perfect God who has provided atonement for one's sins then one will stand before God without the covering of this righteousness. A man's work--just a human exactly like us--will not be able to provide you the righteousness which God requires in order to stand before him in perfect holiness.

He had to be man too because just as Adam was the representative for those who sinned, there had to be another representative--a second Adam--who can represent us. As God promised in Genesis 3--someone from Adam's line (the seed) would crush the head of the serpent. So that individual had to be, as God had spoken, born from Adam.
 

Windmillcharge

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I can't get anyone to answer this honest question

Jeremiah 31:30 says that each man will pay for his own sins.
Jesus is not just a man, if he was he could only pay for his own sins, but as the Son of God incarnate as a man he could pay for All our sins.

If you accept that Jesus is your saviour, you are automaticly accepting him as the Son of God. How else are your sins to be forgiven?
 

Ronald David Bruno

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I can't get anyone to answer this honest question. All I get back is because the Bible says so. But there must be a reason for it. What is it? Here I will give you a reason why he had to be a man.

Romans says a man (Adam) caused sin to enter into the world, and also that a man would have to redeem it from sin. Romans 5:15 says “For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many.” The Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).

Now it's your turn. Anyone?
We can't make anything spiritual. Jesus is the Creator (Col. 1:16, 17; John 1:1; Hebrews 1:8).
Jesus is referred to as the God/man. God emptied Himself and became a human - obviously just partially. Wait a minute, Christianity claims He was fully God. Well, I agree, He just relinquished His glory temporarily. But in Him, we saw God and we saw Man. Man needed to experience God up close and personal. Jesus is the exact essence and illumination of God. You cannot be exactly like Gid unless you are God. Jesus temporarily relinquished His glory ( of which was shown to the disciples) so that He, as a man, could become our High Priest to perform the ultimate sacrifice, Himself. But His physical body is not His Spirit. His Spirit existed before His birth and scripture is clear that He said,
" Before Abraham was, I Am";
"I Am the Bread of Life that came down from heaven";
"Father, glorify Me as I was before ...";
"I Am the Way, the Truth and the Life";
" I Am the Alpha and Omega";
" I AM the Resurrection and the Life", etc.
You cannot read through the book of John and not see His deity unless you do not have the Holy Spirit to help you discern scripture.
Jesus cannot be in authority of heaven and earth UNLESS He is God. It requires omniscience, omnipresence and omnipotence. Jesus could have not carried the sins of mankind (trillions) which He Himself would have to know each one, for all our sins were imputed onto Him - for all time. This is a task you can't fathom nor take lightly.
 
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Matthias

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I can't get anyone to answer this honest question. All I get back is because the Bible says so. But there must be a reason for it. What is it? Here I will give you a reason why he had to be a man.

Romans says a man (Adam) caused sin to enter into the world, and also that a man would have to redeem it from sin. Romans 5:15 says “For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many.” The Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).

Now it's your turn. Anyone?

What benefit did it produce when God made Moses God to Pharaoh?
 

BeyondET

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I can't get anyone to answer this honest question. All I get back is because the Bible says so. But there must be a reason for it. What is it? Here I will give you a reason why he had to be a man.

Romans says a man (Adam) caused sin to enter into the world, and also that a man would have to redeem it from sin. Romans 5:15 says “For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many.” The Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).

Now it's your turn. Anyone?

Isaiah 43:11
I, yes I, am the LORD, and there is no Savior but Me.
 
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Mr E

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I can't get anyone to answer this honest question. All I get back is because the Bible says so. But there must be a reason for it. What is it? Here I will give you a reason why he had to be a man.

Romans says a man (Adam) caused sin to enter into the world, and also that a man would have to redeem it from sin. Romans 5:15 says “For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many.” The Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).

Now it's your turn. Anyone?

I think a better question might be- is there any benefit to the idea at all? And that's what it is- it's an idea someone proposed that others adopted to the degree that many now think to suggest otherwise is heretical and blasphemous. The fact is that scripture never insists that Jesus is God and never makes such a declaration. It actually says the opposite- that we will recognize the spirit of God in those that contend that Jesus (the Christ) came in the flesh - a physical man and that it was the spirit of God within him-- the spirit from God and it is the same spirit within each of us. 1 John 4-

Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God; and every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not from God; this is the spirit of the antichrist, of which you have heard that it is coming, and now it is already in the world. You are from God, little children, and have overcome them; because greater is He who is in you than he who is in the world. They are from the world; therefore they speak as from the world, and the world listens to them. We are from God; he who knows God listens to us; he who is not from God does not listen to us. By this we know the spirit of truth and the spirit of error.

There's a flip side to your question. If there is no real benefit to the idea, what of any real harm? Could it be detrimental to set Jesus up on this pedestal and separate him from all others? It makes him unlike us and us unlike him-- how then can he be any kind of real example for others to follow if we are different in very nature? It makes him little more than an actor- a pretender who came and posed as a man, but wasn't really like any of us. He told us what to do, but it was a do as I say, not as I do... because you can't no matter how hard you try.

Look it up-- Jesus compares himself to the bronze snake on the pole that Moses made. (Num 21) It was made at a specific time for a specific purpose as a means of rescue or salvation, but centuries later the people were worshipping it. Jesus says-- I'm like that Nehushtan, to be lifted up on a pole- for salvation, he didn't come to be worshipped. “As Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of Man be lifted up; so that whoever believes will in Him have eternal life. You won't find a more direct comparison.

Finally-- the book of the revelation of Jesus Christ has two distinct mentions that set the notion of Jesus himself being God tumbling. Those who hold to the idea insist you must impose a different voice, a different speaker-- some unknown angel instead of Jesus Christ himself who is showing John all these things. Yet from the start it is clear that the book contains the revealing of Jesus, by Jesus to John. Don't let someone's red letter Bible dictate who is speaking in spirit to John. The angel of Jesus Christ is the spirit of Jesus Christ -in spirit- which is where John is shown these things.

The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show to His bond-servants, the things which must soon take place; and He sent and communicated it by His angel to His bond-servant John, who testified to the word of God and to the testimony of Jesus Christ, even to all that he saw.

This angel later tells John, when he bows to worship him--

And he said to me, “These are true words of God.” Then I fell at his feet to worship him. But he said to me, “Do not do that; I am a fellow servant of yours and your brethren who hold the testimony of Jesus; worship God. For the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.”

And the book ends with this--

I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I heard and saw, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed me these things. But he said to me, “Do not do that. I am a fellow servant of yours and of your brethren the prophets and of those who heed the words of this book. Worship God.” And he said to me, “Do not seal up the words of the prophecy of this book, for the time is near. Let the one who does wrong, still do wrong; and the one who is filthy, still be filthy; and let the one who is righteous, still practice righteousness; and the one who is holy, still keep himself holy. Behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to render to every man according to what he has done. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end.”

Did your Bible switch speakers for that last part? Did it insert 'red letters' to support a bias?
 

Wrangler

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I can't get anyone to answer this honest question ... What benefit does it produce to make Jesus God

Now it's your turn. Anyone?

I doubt you'll get an honest answer.

I think a better question might be ...

Mr. Avoid the Subject and Replace Question With What You Deem A Better Question,

Why not answer Peterlag's inferior question, out of respect, and then start a new thread with your superior, better question?
 

Mr E

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I doubt you'll get an honest answer.



Mr. Avoid the Subject and Replace Question With What You Deem A Better Question,

Why not answer Peterlag's inferior question, out of respect, and then start a new thread with your superior, better question?

lol... ummm okay. For the grammatically challenged that can’t see that I directly addressed his question and avoided nothing— I’ll be even more clear. There is no ‘benefit’ and I think there may be some risk of harm in holding to the idea. I’d be happy to discuss it further if you can get that thorn out of your saddle.
 
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RLT63

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I can't get anyone to answer this honest question. All I get back is because the Bible says so. But there must be a reason for it. What is it? Here I will give you a reason why he had to be a man.

Romans says a man (Adam) caused sin to enter into the world, and also that a man would have to redeem it from sin. Romans 5:15 says “For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many.” The Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).

Now it's your turn. Anyone?
List of Pro-Trinity/Deity of Christ Bible Passages - Berean Patriot
 
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farouk

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He is man too. 100% man and 100% God. He had to be God too because only God is perfect; there is no mere man--who is not also God--who is perfect. No one else could have provided the perfect sacrifice required of God to make propitiation for our sins (the sacrifices described in Leviticus, those animals "without blemish" pointed to the ultimate sacrifice that Jesus would embody). Since all men are born into sin, being born just a man would automatically disqualify Jesus from being the ultimate atonement for our sins.

If Jesus is not also God, we are still dead in our sins. If one does not trust in a perfect God who has provided atonement for one's sins then one will stand before God without the covering of this righteousness. A man's work--just a human exactly like us--will not be able to provide you the righteousness which God requires in order to stand before him in perfect holiness.

He had to be man too because just as Adam was the representative for those who sinned, there had to be another representative--a second Adam--who can represent us. As God promised in Genesis 3--someone from Adam's line (the seed) would crush the head of the serpent. So that individual had to be, as God had spoken, born from Adam.
Hi @dhh712 ; the Deity of Christ in Scripture is overwhelming. (The phasing of the thread's title is bizarre.)
 
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VictoryinJesus

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I can't get anyone to answer this honest question. All I get back is because the Bible says so. But there must be a reason for it. What is it? Here I will give you a reason why he had to be a man.

Romans says a man (Adam) caused sin to enter into the world, and also that a man would have to redeem it from sin. Romans 5:15 says “For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many.” The Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).

Now it's your turn. Anyone?

the word …if the word was a mere flesh man without the Spirit of God …then how did the word became flesh and dwelt among us, was dead and is alive? To me the argument is like asking: what benefit is there in the word of God being made Alive?
 

Mr E

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Hi @dhh712 ; the Deity of Christ in Scripture is overwhelming. (The phasing of the thread's title is bizarre.)

I don’t think anyone is disputing the Diety of “Christ” - a term or title that refers specifically to the spiritual anointing that scripture informs us descended from heaven (like a dove) upon a man called Jesus who was physically born like others are physically born, of a mother and the labor of delivery into this world.

The thread is making an important distinction between the physical flesh and the anointing spirit, which made the man- Christ, or Messiah of you prefer.
 

RLT63

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I don’t think anyone is disputing the Diety of “Christ” - a term or title that refers specifically to the spiritual anointing that scripture informs us descended from heaven (like a dove) upon a man called Jesus who was physically born like others are physically born, of a mother and the labor of delivery into this world.

The thread is making an important distinction between the physical flesh and the anointing spirit, which made the man- Christ, or Messiah of you prefer.
But not conceived like others
 
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Taken

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I can't get anyone to answer this honest question. All I get back is because the Bible says so. But there must be a reason for it. What is it? Here I will give you a reason why he had to be a man.

Romans says a man (Adam) caused sin to enter into the world, and also that a man would have to redeem it from sin. Romans 5:15 says “For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many.” The Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).

Now it's your turn. Anyone?

It has to do with several things...
1) First anciently, men with visions preached, that which the listeners could not BELIEVE what they could not see.
2) Men with visions preached THINGS that would happen Before they happened....too long of a time span for men to wait to see happen what was foretold. (Scripture reveals numerous times...shall come to pass)
3) Men with visions preached THINGS that would happen Before they happened....God shortened a time span, so men could Hear and Then See that it would happen. (Num 11:23 now See if it shall come to pass)
4) whoop, whoop...happenings pre told, comes to pass...but, but, but, WE WANT TO SEE GOD!!
5) Gods response....You stubborn, stiffnecked people! You can not Believe being pre-told of what will happen, it does happen and YOU STILL DOUBT God exists?
6) Here ya go kids......I WILL SEND MY (Gods) Word to Earth.....and guess what...YOU WILL SEE Him, YOU WILL HEAR Him.....AND MOST OF YOU.....WILL STILL NOT BELIEVE!

7) So God WHO had been giving VISIONS to men, To teach other men ABOUT God....Switches gears.....And Sends His OWN WORD to EARTH to TEACH earthly MEN.
8) God purposes IN HIMSELF.... (Eph 1:9)
9) God Prepared a BODY for His Word....(Heb 10:5)
10) God Sent His Word forth out of His mouth in the Prepared body ...
(Isa 55:11)
11) Sent His Word (a holy thing) to where it would prosper. (Isa 55:11)
12) Where God Sent His Word was this world Earth. (Heb 10:5)
13) In the LIKENESS AS AN EARTHLY MAN, God Sent His Word to Earth, (TO the VIRGIN WOMB of an Earthly Faithful Jewish woman) WAS in the LIKENESS, fashion, shape, look AS an Earthly man and was SEEN by Earthly men.....
Looking LIKE an Earthly man... (Phil 2:7, Phil 2:8)
14) God FORETOLD (through Gods Faithful Holy Angel Servant) that HOLY THING (ie the Word of God) (Luke 1:35) would be delivered forth from the Virgin Womb of a Jewish Woman...and called Jesus (Matt 1:21) and He called himself the Son of man (Matt 16:13) and that He shall be called the Son of God. (Luke 1:35)
15) and 30 years later, He was called the Son of God.


WHY? WHY did Gods Word come forth out of Gods mouth, and God purpose in Himself, to be seen ON EARTH AS A HUMBLED SERVANT, in the LIKENESS AS A MAN?

1) First and foremost ANY EARTHLY MAN that could SEE God “as He is”, would instantly DIE, incinerate, Because of the Brightness of His Pure LIGHT.
2) Gods PEOPLE, the TRIBES were scattered, following After Gentiles way and gods.
3) Judah adjoined with the Tribe of Benjamin were the last standouts continuing to Follow their forefathers Beliefs in God and Laws and Traditions of God.
4) God had PROMISED to SAVE faithful men He called “His People” ISRAEL.
5) Men Converting IN Christ were and are Servants Spreading the Gospel of Jesus Christ......and incinerated man would not be able to Serve God and Preach!

THE WHY...was to seek and SAVE His People, TO FULFILL His PROMISE.
THE WHY...WAS ALSO to make way for GENTILES to hear, learn, that they might ALSO Believe and be grafted into and Become Gods People.
AND...DURING the end of days tribulation, SHALL BE A GREAT Revival, Of Masses of JEWS becoming IN BELIEF....that
Jesus IS the Christ, the Son of the Living God...
THEN SHALL Gods Promise BE FULFILLED to His People ISRAEL.
And thereafter Separation of Gods People and those Against God.
And thereafter Judgement and A NEW Heavens and NEW Earth WITH Gods People and God Himself as He is.
 

Mr E

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But not conceived like others

-or so the story goes?

The question then becomes was he less of a man than all others, lacking some part of DNA or some part of what we call human nature? Or was he more than all other humans born having some extra God-part that none of us have? Good Christians have wide and varied opinions on this. I tend to agree with Hebrews that says he was like us “in every respect.”



“Therefore, it was necessary for him to be made in every respect like us…so that he could be our merciful and faithful High Priest before God. Then he could offer a sacrifice that would take away the sins of the people”
 
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