Which translation do you think is the best English translation?

[Michiah-Imla]

God didn't "lie" to anybodDy

You make good points.

However, what do you make of this:

“And if the prophet be deceived when he hath spoken a thing, I the LORD have deceived that prophet” (Ezekiel 14:9)

 

[Illuminator]

You make good points.

However, what do you make of this:

“And if the prophet be deceived when he hath spoken a thing, I the LORD have deceived that prophet” (Ezekiel 14:9)

That applies to false prophets who end up suffering the consequences of their falsehoods.
Ezekiel 14:9 Commentaries: "But if the prophet is prevailed upon to speak a word, it is I, the LORD, who have prevailed upon that prophet, and I will stretch out My hand against him and destroy him from among My people Israel.

It's an andromorphic expression, not a literal one, unless one argues that God has literal hands.

 

[Jim B]

This forum is infected with Biblical illiteracy - and you're no different.

God didn't "lie" to anybodDy in 1 Kings 22:19-23 - ANYMORE than He -
- Allowed Satan to perform all manner of evil against His servant Job (Job 1:5-33).
- allowed Paul to be buffeted by a demon (2 Cor. 12:7) in order to strengthen him.
- Allows YOU to lie and cheat and commit ALL manner of sins.

God didn't DO any of these things.
He ALLOWS them to happen for the greater good.

God is SOVEREIGHN - He's not evil. God doesn't lie - NOR can Scripture contradict itself.
ONLY a Biblical illiterate like yourself would think so . . ..

You wrote "God is SOVEREIGHN - He's not evil. God doesn't lie - NOR can Scripture contradict itself.
ONLY a Biblical illiterate like yourself would think so . . ."

I bet that Wrangler can at least spell "sovereign" correctly!

 

[Jim B]

You make good points.

However, what do you make of this:

“And if the prophet be deceived when he hath spoken a thing, I the LORD have deceived that prophet” (Ezekiel 14:9)

It's a good idea to quote something in context instead of isolating a particular verse. That is one of the errors caused by the King James translation butchering Scripture.

Here is that verse in context...

“‘As for the prophet, if he is made a fool by being deceived into speaking a prophetic word—I, the Lord, have made a fool of that prophet, and I will stretch out my hand against him and destroy him from among my people Israel. They will bear their punishment; the punishment of the one who sought an oracle will be the same as the punishment of the prophet who gave it so that the house of Israel will no longer go astray from me, nor continue to defile themselves by all their sins. They will be my people, and I will be their God, declares the Sovereign Lord.’” Ezekiel 14:9-11, NET

 

[Michiah-Imla]

That is one of the errors caused by the King James translation butchering Scripture.

The ESV translation:

“And if the prophet is deceived and speaks a word, I, the LORD, have deceived that prophet” (Ezekiel 14:9)

There’s no need to slander the KJV by default.

And there’s no need to quote the whole verse to make a point. The Apostles and prophets often times quoted snippets of scripture to teach.

 

[BreadOfLife]

You wrote "God is SOVEREIGHN - He's not evil. God doesn't lie - NOR can Scripture contradict itself.
ONLY a Biblical illiterate like yourself would think so . . ."

I bet that Wrangler can at least spell "sovereign" correctly!

Uh-hih.
And I'd much rather be guilty of a simple typo than to pervert the Word of Almighty God - or to ignorantly support somebody who did.

Good job . . .

 

[BreadOfLife]

The ESV translation:

“And if the prophet is deceived and speaks a word, I, the LORD, have deceived that prophet” (Ezekiel 14:9)

There’s no need to slander the KJV by default.

And there’s no need to quote the whole verse to make a point. The Apostles and prophets often times quoted snippets of scripture to teach.

When in doubt - go to the ORIGINAL languagees of Scripture.

The Hebrew word used in this verse is "pathah" - whose definition is more closely defined as "enticed".
It literally means. "to open wide" - as in, "To open a person's mind to other possibilities."

The Greek Septuagint renders this phrase as:
"...I the Lord have persuaded the prophet..." (κύριος πεπλάνηκα τὸν προφήτην).

These versions are closer to the actual Hrbew word used:

NIV
I the LORD have enticed that prophet

NASB
I, the LORD, who have persuaded that prophet;

NASB 1977, 1995
I, the LORD, who have prevailed upon that prophet

NET Bible
I, the LORD, have made a fool of that prophet

Young’s Literal Translation
I, Jehovah, I have enticed that prophet,

 

[Jim B]

The ESV translation:

“And if the prophet is deceived and speaks a word, I, the LORD, have deceived that prophet” (Ezekiel 14:9)

There’s no need to slander the KJV by default.

And there’s no need to quote the whole verse to make a point. The Apostles and prophets often times quoted snippets of scripture to teach.

You are neither an apostle nor a prophet.

There’s no need to quote the whole verse to make a point? Psalm 14:1a and Psalm 53:1b in the ESV both say “There is no God.”

 

[Michiah-Imla]

You are neither an apostle nor a prophet.

You’re funny.

As if this means anything.

“Now therefore why hast thou not reproved Jeremiah of Anathoth, which maketh himself a prophet to you?” (Jeremiah 29:27)

 

[Behold]

Read this verse in your bible.

1 Timothy 3:16

If it says "He who was manifested in the flesh"...... instead of "God was manifested in the Flesh"

= then invest in a bible that says "GOD" "was manifested in the Flesh."

See, any real word of God, will not try to hide the Deity of Christ.

 

[Wrangler]

The best translation is the one that brings you closer to God.

 

[Jim B]

You’re funny.

As if this means anything.

“Now therefore why hast thou not reproved Jeremiah of Anathoth, which maketh himself a prophet to you?” (Jeremiah 29:27)

I hate to break this to you but... you're not Jeremiah. You're not a prophet, period. If you think that you are you're deluded.

 

[tigger 2]

The best translation is the one that brings you closer to God.

...............................

Then it would include all the thousands of places where God has used his name. These would include those which transliterate it as Jehovah (traditional English form), Yahweh, Yehowah, or the literal YHWH. 'LORD' or 'Lord' is not an honest transliteration of YHWH. And they certainly are not honest translations!

Of course there is more that must also be translated correctly to bring one closer to God, but proper use of His name is the first step.

 

[BreadOfLife]

The best translation is the one that brings you closer to God.

But NOT if it invents a different god, like the NWT.

 

[Michiah-Imla]

I hate to break this to you but...

No. I think you love to break this to me.

“And they were offended in him. But Jesus said unto them, A prophet is not without honour, save in his own country, and in his own house.” (Matthew 13:57)

 

[Grailhunter]

For the record....if anyone cares for the truth....
In the Hebrew Old Testament Yahweh was very seldom referenced as just God. God Yahweh or Lord Yahweh. God is not a name...it is not the name of Yahweh. God is a divine position not a name. One of the reasons for not just using God to reference Yahweh is that in Hebrew....God and god are the same word. When they removed the names of God the Father and God the Son from the Bible this all got confuse.

There can be no person, place, or thing that can start with a J in the Bible. The J comes out in 1400 AD. All the Y's were changed to J's in the Old and New Testament during the J slam. Most of this can be proven by looking up names like Job, Jacob, joseph, Jericho, John and Jesus in the Strong's and see how they are pronounced. More accurate literary books will give more information.

Still most translations carry on this error. There are translations that are trying to put God the Father's and God the Son's names back in the Bible. It is not an easy task for various reasons, for one God's name appeared nearly 6,000 time in the Old Testament, those names or the tetragrammaton were completely removed and replaced with the words God or Lord.

I write the names of God the Father and God the Son in my Bible....at the top of some of the pages so that their names are in my Bible.

 

[tigger 2]

"those names or the tetragrammaton were completely removed and replaced with the words God or Lord."

And by whom and from where and when was the tetragrammaton removed?

 

[Grailhunter]

"those names or the tetragrammaton were completely removed and replaced with the words God or Lord."

And by whom and from where and when was the tetragrammaton removed?

The Jews changed it.....not an instant in time....not like a new edition to the Sunday paper it happened slowly when the scriptures were recopied. Between the 6th and 3rd centuries.

Then the Greek Septuagint (250 - 134 BC) Favored the word Lord.

Most of this is because the Jews came to believe that the scripture about not using the Lord's name in vain....meant that God never wanted His name uttered on earth....ever. To this day the Jews will not write God but rather G-d.

From where? Not sure what you mean. But where is the Bible....God the Father's name and God the Son's name does not appear in most Bibles. The funny....the Geneva Bible and the early versions of the King James used a Greek word for Yeshua...the Greek word, that was not a name....(Iēsous) it more or less meant honorable person....not a name. No one really knows where the word Jesus came from, Letter J cannot be....They might as well have a Boeing 474 picking Christ up when He ascended to His Father.

God the Father's name and God the Son's names are Yahweh and Yeshua respectively.

Just for information for pronouncing these names, keep in mind that the Hebrew Y had a e-tang to it. e-Yeshua. Have you heard that Jesus's name was a common name in the time period....Find the word Jesus in the Old Testament LOL It would be translated Joshua in modern translations....better translated of course Yeshua.

Now the name Yeshua in the New Testament came to be like Ed and Edward....Yeshua or Yehoshua meaning approximately God is Salvation or God is my Salvation

So there ya have it.

 

[Jim B]

No. I think you love to break this to me.

“And they were offended in him. But Jesus said unto them, A prophet is not without honour, save in his own country, and in his own house.” (Matthew 13:57)

I hate to break this to you but, you're not Jesus, nor are you a prophet.

"Then he [Jesus] came to his hometown and began to teach the people in their synagogue. They were astonished and said, “Where did this man get such wisdom and miraculous powers? Isn’t this the carpenter’s son? Isn’t his mother named Mary? And aren’t his brothers James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas? And aren’t all his sisters here with us? So where did he get all this?” And so they took offense at him. But Jesus said to them, “A prophet is not without honor except in his hometown and in his own house.” And he did not do many miracles there because of their unbelief." Matthew 13:54-58

You have an inflated ego and use Bible excerpts to justify your delusion. You're just an opinionated, deluded man.

P.S. You might want to change to a better translation. "And they were offended in him" is meaningless. How are you offended "in" somebody?

 

[farouk]

www.Biblehub.com and a tablet.

Book only ESV. In new Testament.

Old, Old Testament, the Jerusalem Bible, ESV, Jewish publication society.

Hi @James Macbeth I myself do appreciate the King James a great deal.