Who is "James?"

[Accurist]

...the NT does not allow a cousin to be called adelphos unless it is referring them as of the same faith or nationality (both are Jewish)

Taking adelphos when used in translating "ach" and making a doctrine out of that is foolish to the maximum. The writers of the septuigant did not have words available to them like "cousin" "nephew" etrc. They chose the best word available going from one language to another. But Lot and Abram were "brethren" in the sense they were tribally related as fits with the definition used by the experts for Greek alone. ONCE AGAIN, Mounce et. al. are defining a word from one language to define a word from another language. And you cannot even prove that it was intended as simply a relative.

all of your arguments are OT arguments in going from Hebrew to Greek and without even kn owing if they were simply talking about all being Jews or from the sametribal origin

Mounce has serious problems so using him diminishes your arguments further.

near kinsmen would be family, kinsmen may include cousins nephews etc. when adelphos is used to translate from Hebrew, for the reasons given you many times.

But we do know in Jesus day the Koine or common Greek had perfectly good words to describe cousins, nephews, nieces aunts uncles etc. God would not be so clumsy as to use a word that in any greek lexicon, dictionary or concordance says as far as blood goes only refers to a brother of the same mom or dad.

While you do some good digging, you are still a sloppy researcher, for you overlook major points that destroy your argument. Or maybe you just refuse to believe those arguments because while very true, they do destroy your arguments.

There isn't a word for "uncle," nephew," "cousin," etc., for example, in the Aramaic and Hebrew languages, and thus the OT authors (not the Septuagint translators) used a circumlocution or a word that means "kinsman," such as "אָח" ('âch) in the following cases:

"ויאמר אברם אל-לוט אל-נא תהי מריבה ביני ובינך ובין רעי ובין רעיך כי-אנשים אחים אנחנו." (Gen. 13:8)
"וישמע אברם כי נשבה אחיו וירק את-חניכיו ילידי ביתו שמנה עשר ושלש מאות וירדף עד-דן." (Gen 14:14)
"ויאמר לבן ליעקב הכי-אחי אתה ועבדתני חנם הגידה לי מה-משכרתך." (Gen. 29:15)
"וימת אלעזר ולא-היו לו בנים כי אם-בנות וישאום בני-קיש אחיהם." (1 Chr. 23:22)

אָח ('âch; plural 'âchiem)
Definition
Brown-Driver-Briggs

1) brother
1a) brother of same parents
1b) half-brother (same father)
1c) relative, kinship, same tribe
1d) each to the other (reciprocal relationship)
1e) (figuratively) of resemblance

אָח ('âch; plural 'âchiem)
Definition
Strong

A primitive word; a brother (used in the widest sense of literal relationship and metaphorical affinity or resemblance (like H1)): - another, brother (-ly), kindred, like, other. Compare also the proper names beginning with «Ah-» or «Ahi-».

Greek Equivalent Words:
Strong #: 80 ‑ ἀδελφός (ad‑el‑fos')...

The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew words "אחים" ('âchiem) in Gen. 13:8 with "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) and "אָח" ('âch) in Gen 14:14 with "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) to describe kinship between Abraham and Lot which lineage shows were that of uncle and nephew:

εἶπεν δὲ Αβραμ τῷ Λωτ Μὴ ἔστω μάχη ἀνὰ μέσον ἐμοῦ καὶ σοῦ καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῶν ποιμένων μου καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῶν ποιμένων σου. ὅτι ἄνθρωποι ἀδελφοὶ ἡμεῖς ἐσμεν. (Gen. 13:8)

ἀκούσας δὲ Αβραμ ὅτι ᾐχμαλώτευται Λωτ ὁ ἀδελφὸς αὐτοῦ, ἠρίθμησεν τοὺς ἰδίους οἰκογενεῖς αὐτοῦ, τριακοσίους δέκα καὶ ὀκτώ, καὶ κατεδίωξεν ὀπίσω αὐτῶν ἕως Δαν. (Gen. 14:14)

The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew word "אָח" ('âch) in Gen. 29:15 with "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) to describe kinship between Jacob and Laban which lineage shows were that of uncle and nephew:

"Εἶπε δὲ Λάβαν τῷ ᾿Ιακώβ· ὅτι γὰρ ἀδελφός μου εἶ, οὐ δουλεύσεις μοι δωρεάν· ἀπάγγειλόν μοι, τίς ὁ μισθός σου ἐστί;" (Gen. 29:15)

The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew word "אחים" ('âchiem) in 1 Chr. 23:21–22 with "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) to describe it was kin the daughters of Eleazar married which lineage shows was their cousins:

"καὶ ἀπέθανεν Ελεαζαρ, καὶ οὐκ ἦσαν αὐτῷ υἱοὶ ἀλλ᾽ ἢ θυγατέρες, καὶ ἔλαβον αὐτὰς υἱοὶ Κις ἀδελφοὶ αὐτῶν. " (1 Chr. 23:22)

It's because the words "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) and "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) were used to describe a kinsman, e.g., uncle, nephew, cousin, etc., in Gen. 13:8;14:14;29:15, 1 Chr. 23:22, etc., that one of its definitions is "kinsman." For this reason, any Lexicons that don't include this definition are in error. See below:

ἀδελφός (adelphos; plural adelphoi)
Definitions
Liddell-Scott-Jones

2. kinsman, ib.Ge.13.8, al.;...

ἀδελφός (adelphos; plural adelphoi)
Definitions
Mounce

...near kinsman, or relative;

As shown, one of the definitions of the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) is "kinsman." Therefore, to say, "...any greek lexicon, dictionary or concordance says as far as blood goes only refers to a brother of the same mom or dad" regarding the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) is false. And in my research, I haven't come across any reason why its definition "kinsman" was abandoned post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

Your Homework:

(i) Show when "kinsman" was abandoned as a definition for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament and by whom.

(ii) Explain why there's Lexicons (Lidell-Scott-Jones, Mounce) including the definition "kinsman" for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) if it was abandoned post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

Misquoting me is the mark of a failed argument.

I said Mary of Cleophas was Mary of Joseph's sister in law. As there was no word for "in-law" sister is correct.

To misquote means to misrepresent. Show where I misrepresented you, please.

I have to repeat the following because you didn't address it the first time: "'εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ (adelphe) τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ, Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή'(Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene). (Jn. 19:25)

Now, you said, '...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion," and thus, according to you, Mary of Joseph and Mary of Cleophas/Clopas shouldn't be called "sisters" as in anything except siblings or fellow believers. Therefore, why are you calling them sisters-in-law, and why did the NT authors use the word "ἀδελφὴ" (adelphe) which, according to you, cannot be used to describe this type of relationship?'"

Edits:
Added a comma.

 

[Taken]

I have to repeat the following because you didn't address it the first time: "According to the early Christians quoted in the OP, (i) "James" in Matt. 13:55/Mk. 6:3, "James the brother of the Lord," "Apostle James of Alphaeus," "James the Bishop of Jerusalem," "James the Less," "James the Just," and the author of the Epistle of James were the same, and (ii) he, Simon, Joseph, and Jude (Judas) were sons of Joseph's brother (sibling), Alphaeus (Cleophas/Clopas), and Mary of Joseph's sister-in-law, Mary of Cleophas/Clopas, and thus Jesus's brothers, as in "kinsmen," specifically cousins. Do you consider them not credible on this matter?"

I think sorting out the James' in Scripture is confusing, and do not particularly take your lump sum understanding for granted.

1) James - brother / sibling of Jesus was identified with his mother Mary, (wife of Joseph), STANDING WITHOUT.
Later we learn their same James - brother/sibling of Jesus:
BECAME a believer.
BECAME a leader in Jerusalem.
BECAME outspoken in Claiming Jesus the Christ.

2) James - son of Zebedee and wife Salome and brother of John.
James & John surnamed Boanerges.
Both James & John appointed Apostles "BY JESUS".
Nearly always mentioned in company with John.
Witnessed Amazing works of Jesus.
This James, the first Apostle marytered,
Acts; 12:2
This James, out of picture, DEAD.

2) James - son of Alphaeus and wife Mary.
Appointed Apostle "BY JESUS".
Nearly every mention of this James in Scripture, as son of Alphaeus.

Recap -
Apostle (appointed BY JESUS) James of Zebedee, identified WITH John.
Killed early.

James (appointed BY JESUS) of Alpheaus, identified WITH Alpheaus.

James sibling of Jesus;
WITHOUT, unbeliever.
WITHIN, believer.
Status of Influence Preaching Jesus IS the Christ, in Jerusalem
(NOT appointed Apostle BY JESUS)
Author of BOOK of James.
Nearly always mentioned,
AS: Brother of the Lord
AS: son of Mary (wife of Joseph)
AS: Brother of Jude (son of Mary, wife of Joseph)
AS: James (without association to anyone, but simply called JAMES)

Paul's CHALLENGE...
Of Paul's understanding of "APOSTLE".
(Specifically "appointed" BY Jesus' or NOT).
Seemingly...Paul's understanding...
"IF one has learned, studied, committed to Jesus, Preaches, is dedicated, willing to sacrifice his own life to openly Preach, Jesus IS the Christ, according to Scripture, he ALSO, is accounted AS AN APOSTLE", whether or not specifically, "appointed BY Jesus".

1 Cor 9: (Paul's perspective)
[1] Am I not an apostle?...

Preaching Christ Jesus' even when facing assured Physical Death, at the hands of men Against Jesus being the Christ. <---
THAT did not APPLY "ONLY" to Jesus' specific appointed Apostles.

 

[Ronald Nolette]

There isn't a word for "uncle," nephew," "cousin," etc., for example, in the Aramaic and Hebrew languages, and thus the OT authors (not the Septuagint translators) used a circumlocution or a word that means "kinsman," such as "אָח" ('âch) in the following cases:

"ויאמר אברם אל-לוט אל-נא תהי מריבה ביני ובינך ובין רעי ובין רעיך כי-אנשים אחים אנחנו." (Gen. 13:8)
"וישמע אברם כי נשבה אחיו וירק את-חניכיו ילידי ביתו שמנה עשר ושלש מאות וירדף עד-דן." (Gen 14:14)
"ויאמר לבן ליעקב הכי-אחי אתה ועבדתני חנם הגידה לי מה-משכרתך." (Gen. 29:15)
"וימת אלעזר ולא-היו לו בנים כי אם-בנות וישאום בני-קיש אחיהם." (1 Chr. 23:22)




The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew words "אחים" ('âchiem) in Gen. 13:8 with "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) and "אָח" ('âch) in Gen 14:14 with "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) to describe kinship between Abraham and Lot which lineage shows were that of uncle and nephew:

εἶπεν δὲ Αβραμ τῷ Λωτ Μὴ ἔστω μάχη ἀνὰ μέσον ἐμοῦ καὶ σοῦ καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῶν ποιμένων μου καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῶν ποιμένων σου. ὅτι ἄνθρωποι ἀδελφοὶ ἡμεῖς ἐσμεν. (Gen. 13:8)

ἀκούσας δὲ Αβραμ ὅτι ᾐχμαλώτευται Λωτ ὁ ἀδελφὸς αὐτοῦ, ἠρίθμησεν τοὺς ἰδίους οἰκογενεῖς αὐτοῦ, τριακοσίους δέκα καὶ ὀκτώ, καὶ κατεδίωξεν ὀπίσω αὐτῶν ἕως Δαν. (Gen. 14:14)

The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew word "אָח" ('âch) in Gen. 29:15 with "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) to describe kinship between Jacob and Laban which lineage shows were that of uncle and nephew:

"Εἶπε δὲ Λάβαν τῷ ᾿Ιακώβ· ὅτι γὰρ ἀδελφός μου εἶ, οὐ δουλεύσεις μοι δωρεάν· ἀπάγγειλόν μοι, τίς ὁ μισθός σου ἐστί;" (Gen. 29:15)

The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew word "אחים" ('âchiem) in 1 Chr. 23:21–22 with "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) to describe it was kin the daughters of Eleazar married which lineage shows was their cousins:

"καὶ ἀπέθανεν Ελεαζαρ, καὶ οὐκ ἦσαν αὐτῷ υἱοὶ ἀλλ᾽ ἢ θυγατέρες, καὶ ἔλαβον αὐτὰς υἱοὶ Κις ἀδελφοὶ αὐτῶν. " (1 Chr. 23:22)

It's because the words "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) and "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) were used to describe a kinsman, e.g., uncle, nephew, cousin, etc., in Gen. 13:8;14:14;29:15, 1 Chr. 23:22, etc., that one of its definitions is "kinsman." For this reason, any Lexicons that don't include this definition are in error. See below:




As shown, one of the definitions of the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) is "kinsman." Therefore, to say, "...any greek lexicon, dictionary or concordance says as far as blood goes only refers to a brother of the same mom or dad" regarding the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) is false. And in my research, I haven't come across any reason why its definition "kinsman" was abandoned post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

Your Homework:

(i) Show when "kinsman" was abandoned as a definition for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament and by whom.

(ii) Explain why there's Lexicons (Lidell-Scott-Jones, Mounce) including the definition "kinsman" for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) if it was abandoned post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.



To misquote means to misrepresent. Show where I misrepresented you, please.

I have to repeat the following because you didn't address it the first time: "'εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ (adelphe) τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ, Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή'(Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene). (Jn. 19:25)

Now, you said, '...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion," and thus, according to you, Mary of Joseph and Mary of Cleophas/Clopas shouldn't be called "sisters" as in anything except siblings or fellow believers. Therefore, why are you calling them sisters-in-law, and why did the NT authors use the word "ἀδελφὴ" (adelphe) which, according to you, cannot be used to describe this type of relationship?'"

Edits:
Added a comma.

Once again, adelphos was chosen by the Septuagint authors to represent ach because there was no word they knew of.

Going from one language to another does not always mean a perfect transition. You are so hung up on adelphos used in some Septuagint verses and then demand it is used that way in the NT. that is just untrue as I showed you. By the time the NT writers wrote, they had perfect words for cousin and nephew etc. and would not have used adelphos to define a cousin.

and if you still want to have a snit over Mary's sister in l;aw being called adelphoi, then you have to accept that Mary had a blood sister from her parents named Mary also. So in her immediate family there were two Mary's.

All your examples of adelphos used of extended family are OT examples which were translated into Greek from Hebrew. why don't you find some examples in the NT where it was the original language and not a tranlsation.

Let me give you an example of how translations are not always literal. The Parisian French word for potato is pomme de terre which literally translated means apple of the earth! You just have a problem accepting the facxt that words used in translating from one language to another can have varied meanings than their strict definition in the original use of the language.

The new testament definition of adelphos rules out cousins and nephews etc. Remember the NT was written in greek.

Translating from Hebrew to Greek for the OT adelphos can have a broader definition due to lack of proper words at the time.
Strong's Greek: 431. ἀνεψιός (anepsios) -- a cousin this is what Matthew would have used to describe James, Joses , Simon and Judah if they were cousins.

Maybe another problem is that you do not realize that koine Greek was not spoken in the 3rd century B.C. the dialects were Doric Aeolic and Ionic (Attic or formal greek was a sub dialect of this).

Though koine was being spoken and becoming the lingua franca for Greece, the Sepuagint was not written in koine which shows why there are variations of definitions from the NT.

 

[Accurist]

Going from one language to another does not always mean a perfect transition.

I never said every translation is a perfect equivalent.

Maybe another problem is that you do not realize that koine Greek was not spoken in the 3rd century B.C. the dialects were Doric Aeolic and Ionic (Attic or formal greek was a sub dialect of this). Though koine was being spoken and becoming the lingua franca for Greece, the Sepuagint was not written in koine which shows why there are variations of definitions from the NT.

See below:

Koine, the fairly uniform Hellenistic Greek spoken and written from the 4th century BC until the time of the Byzantine emperor Justinian (mid-6th century AD) in Greece, Macedonia, and the parts of Africa and the Middle East that had come under the influence or control of Greeks or of Hellenized rulers. Based chiefly on the Attic dialect, the Koine had superseded the other ancient Greek dialects by the 2nd century AD. Koine is the language of the Greek translation of the Old Testament (the Septuagint), of the New Testament, and of the writings of the historian Polybius and the philosopher Epictetus. It forms the basis of Modern Greek. See also Greek languages.

Source: https://www.britannica.com/topic/Koine-Greek-language

Furthermore, languages don't just drop one dialect and start another. There's always periods of transition and much back and forth between the old and new dialects. Considering the Attic dialect was the direct precursor to Koine, it makes sense that the Septuagint would show characteristics from both.

Once again, adelphos was chosen by the Septuagint authors to represent ach because there was no word they knew of.

...

By the time the NT writers wrote, they had perfect words for cousin and nephew etc. and would not have used adelphos to define a cousin.

...

You just have a problem accepting the facxt that words used in translating from one language to another can have varied meanings than their strict definition in the original use of the language.

The new testament definition of adelphos rules out cousins and nephews etc.

Firstly, there isn't a word for "uncle," nephew," "cousin," etc., for example, in the Aramaic and Hebrew languages, and thus the OT authors (not the Septuagint translators) used a circumlocution or a word that means "kinsman," such as "אָח" ('âch) in the following cases:

"ויאמר אברם אל-לוט אל-נא תהי מריבה ביני ובינך ובין רעי ובין רעיך כי-אנשים אחים אנחנו." (Gen. 13:8)
"וישמע אברם כי נשבה אחיו וירק את-חניכיו ילידי ביתו שמנה עשר ושלש מאות וירדף עד-דן." (Gen 14:14)
"ויאמר לבן ליעקב הכי-אחי אתה ועבדתני חנם הגידה לי מה-משכרתך." (Gen. 29:15)
"וימת אלעזר ולא-היו לו בנים כי אם-בנות וישאום בני-קיש אחיהם." (1 Chr. 23:22)

אָח ('âch; plural 'âchiem)
Definition
Brown-Driver-Briggs

1) brother
1a) brother of same parents
1b) half-brother (same father)
1c) relative, kinship, same tribe
1d) each to the other (reciprocal relationship)
1e) (figuratively) of resemblance

אָח ('âch; plural 'âchiem)
Definition
Strong

A primitive word; a brother (used in the widest sense of literal relationship and metaphorical affinity or resemblance (like H1)): - another, brother (-ly), kindred, like, other. Compare also the proper names beginning with «Ah-» or «Ahi-».

Greek Equivalent Words:
Strong #: 80 ‑ ἀδελφός (ad‑el‑fos')...

The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew words "אחים" ('âchiem) in Gen. 13:8 with "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) and "אָח" ('âch) in Gen 14:14 with "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) to describe kinship between Abraham and Lot which lineage shows were that of uncle and nephew:

εἶπεν δὲ Αβραμ τῷ Λωτ Μὴ ἔστω μάχη ἀνὰ μέσον ἐμοῦ καὶ σοῦ καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῶν ποιμένων μου καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῶν ποιμένων σου. ὅτι ἄνθρωποι ἀδελφοὶ ἡμεῖς ἐσμεν. (Gen. 13:8)

ἀκούσας δὲ Αβραμ ὅτι ᾐχμαλώτευται Λωτ ὁ ἀδελφὸς αὐτοῦ, ἠρίθμησεν τοὺς ἰδίους οἰκογενεῖς αὐτοῦ, τριακοσίους δέκα καὶ ὀκτώ, καὶ κατεδίωξεν ὀπίσω αὐτῶν ἕως Δαν. (Gen. 14:14)

The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew word "אָח" ('âch) in Gen. 29:15 with "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) to describe kinship between Jacob and Laban which lineage shows were that of uncle and nephew:

"Εἶπε δὲ Λάβαν τῷ ᾿Ιακώβ· ὅτι γὰρ ἀδελφός μου εἶ, οὐ δουλεύσεις μοι δωρεάν· ἀπάγγειλόν μοι, τίς ὁ μισθός σου ἐστί;" (Gen. 29:15)

The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew word "אחים" ('âchiem) in 1 Chr. 23:21–22 with "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) to describe it was kin the daughters of Eleazar married which lineage shows was their cousins:

"καὶ ἀπέθανεν Ελεαζαρ, καὶ οὐκ ἦσαν αὐτῷ υἱοὶ ἀλλ᾽ ἢ θυγατέρες, καὶ ἔλαβον αὐτὰς υἱοὶ Κις ἀδελφοὶ αὐτῶν. " (1 Chr. 23:22)

Secondly, considering Plato [c. 429?–347 BCE) used the word "συγγενής" (syngenes) and Aeschylus (c. 525–456 BCE) used the word "θεῖος" (theîos), we know that the translators of the Septuagint should've been well aware of these words at the time.

Thirdly, a Lexicon shouldn't be considered just a Lexicon of the NT. It should be a Lexicon of the language itself as spoken by all of the people who used it. In other words, a complete vocabulary.

Fourthly, uncles, nephews, and cousins, etc., are encompassed under "kinsman," which is one of the definitions for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) in the following Koine Greek Lexicons:

ἀδελφός (adelphos; plural adelphoi)
Definitions
Liddell-Scott-Jones

2. kinsman, ib.Ge.13.8, al.;...

ἀδελφός (adelphos; plural adelphoi)
Definitions
Mounce

...near kinsman, or relative;

One of the reasons it is is because the words "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) and "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) were used to describe a kinsman, e.g., uncle, nephew, cousin, etc., in Gen. 13:8;14:14;29:15, 1 Chr. 23:22, etc. For this reason, any Lexicons that don't include this definition are in error.

Now, what you don't understand is that word definitions aren't as "strict" as you think they are, and the same language can be used differently by different cultures, and every word can have a range of meanings beyond its most literal definition. Otherwise, slang wouldn't exist. And this isn't a modern thing.

Lastly, you at least admit "kinsman" was a definition of the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) during the writing of the Septuagint.

Your homework:

(i) Show when "kinsman" was abandoned as a definition for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

(ii) Explain why there are Lexicons, e.g., Lidell-Scott-Jones, Mounce, etc., including the definition "kinsman" for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) if it was abandoned post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

Given the context and location and specificity of the talk- we can only conclude thatr James, Joses, Simon and Judah was Jesus half brothers...

The scriptural verses and testimonials of early Christians in the OP illustrate (i) "James" in Matt. 13:55/Mk. 6:3, "James the brother of the Lord," "Apostle James of Alphaeus," "James the Bishop of Jerusalem," "James the Less," "James the Just," and the author of the Epistle of James were the same, and (ii) he, Simon, Joseph, and Jude (Judas) were sons of Joseph's brother (sibling), Alphaeus (Cleophas/Clopas), and Mary of Joseph's sister-in-law, Mary of Cleophas/Clopas, and thus Jesus's brothers, as in "kinsmen," specifically cousins.

and if you still want to have a snit over Mary's sister in l;aw being called adelphoi, then you have to accept that Mary had a blood sister from her parents named Mary also. So in her immediate family there were two Mary's.

"'εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ (adelphe) τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ, Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή'(Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene). (Jn. 19:25)

You, not me, said, "...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion," and thus if there's anybody who needs to accept that the word "ἀδελφὴ" (adelphe) in Jn. 19:25 either means Mary of Cleophas/Clopas was Mary of Joseph's sibling or a fellow believer it's you. Therefore, since, according to you, those are the only two options, why are you calling them sisters-in-law, and why did the NT authors use the word "ἀδελφὴ" (adelphe) which, according to you, cannot be used to describe this type of relationship?

 

[Ronald Nolette]

I never said every translation is a perfect equivalent.



See below:


Source: https://www.britannica.com/topic/Koine-Greek-language

Furthermore, languages don't just drop one dialect and start another. There's always periods of transition and much back and forth between the old and new dialects. Considering the Attic dialect was the direct precursor to Koine, it makes sense that the Septuagint would show characteristics from both.



Firstly, there isn't a word for "uncle," nephew," "cousin," etc., for example, in the Aramaic and Hebrew languages, and thus the OT authors (not the Septuagint translators) used a circumlocution or a word that means "kinsman," such as "אָח" ('âch) in the following cases:

"ויאמר אברם אל-לוט אל-נא תהי מריבה ביני ובינך ובין רעי ובין רעיך כי-אנשים אחים אנחנו." (Gen. 13:8)
"וישמע אברם כי נשבה אחיו וירק את-חניכיו ילידי ביתו שמנה עשר ושלש מאות וירדף עד-דן." (Gen 14:14)
"ויאמר לבן ליעקב הכי-אחי אתה ועבדתני חנם הגידה לי מה-משכרתך." (Gen. 29:15)
"וימת אלעזר ולא-היו לו בנים כי אם-בנות וישאום בני-קיש אחיהם." (1 Chr. 23:22)




The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew words "אחים" ('âchiem) in Gen. 13:8 with "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) and "אָח" ('âch) in Gen 14:14 with "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) to describe kinship between Abraham and Lot which lineage shows were that of uncle and nephew:

εἶπεν δὲ Αβραμ τῷ Λωτ Μὴ ἔστω μάχη ἀνὰ μέσον ἐμοῦ καὶ σοῦ καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῶν ποιμένων μου καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῶν ποιμένων σου. ὅτι ἄνθρωποι ἀδελφοὶ ἡμεῖς ἐσμεν. (Gen. 13:8)

ἀκούσας δὲ Αβραμ ὅτι ᾐχμαλώτευται Λωτ ὁ ἀδελφὸς αὐτοῦ, ἠρίθμησεν τοὺς ἰδίους οἰκογενεῖς αὐτοῦ, τριακοσίους δέκα καὶ ὀκτώ, καὶ κατεδίωξεν ὀπίσω αὐτῶν ἕως Δαν. (Gen. 14:14)

The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew word "אָח" ('âch) in Gen. 29:15 with "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) to describe kinship between Jacob and Laban which lineage shows were that of uncle and nephew:

"Εἶπε δὲ Λάβαν τῷ ᾿Ιακώβ· ὅτι γὰρ ἀδελφός μου εἶ, οὐ δουλεύσεις μοι δωρεάν· ἀπάγγειλόν μοι, τίς ὁ μισθός σου ἐστί;" (Gen. 29:15)

The Septuagint translators substituted the Hebrew word "אחים" ('âchiem) in 1 Chr. 23:21–22 with "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) to describe it was kin the daughters of Eleazar married which lineage shows was their cousins:

"καὶ ἀπέθανεν Ελεαζαρ, καὶ οὐκ ἦσαν αὐτῷ υἱοὶ ἀλλ᾽ ἢ θυγατέρες, καὶ ἔλαβον αὐτὰς υἱοὶ Κις ἀδελφοὶ αὐτῶν. " (1 Chr. 23:22)

Secondly, considering Plato [c. 429?–347 BCE) had used the word "συγγενής" (syngenes) and Aeschylus (c. 525–456 BCE) used the word "θεῖος" (theîos), we know that the translators of the Septuagint should've been well aware of these words at the time.

Thirdly, a Lexicon shouldn't be considered just a Lexicon of the NT. It should be a Lexicon of the language itself as spoken by all of the people who used it. In other words, a complete vocabulary.

Fourthly, uncles, nephews, and cousins, etc., are encompassed under "kinsman," which is one of the definitions for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) in the following Koine Greek Lexicons:





One of the reasons it is is because the words "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) and "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) were used to describe a kinsman, e.g., uncle, nephew, cousin, etc., in Gen. 13:8;14:14;29:15, 1 Chr. 23:22, etc. For this reason, any Lexicons that don't include this definition are in error.

Now, what you don't understand is that word definitions aren't as "strict" as you think they are, and the same language can be used differently by different cultures, and every word can have a range of meanings beyond its most literal definition. Otherwise, slang wouldn't exist. And this isn't a modern thing.

Lastly, you at least admit "kinsman" was a definition of the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) during the writing of the Septuagint.

Your homework:

(i) Show when "kinsman" was abandoned as a definition for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

(ii) Explain why there are Lexicons, e.g., Lidell-Scott-Jones, Mounce, etc., including the definition "kinsman" for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) if it was abandoned post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.



The scriptural verses and testimonials of early Christians in the OP illustrate (i) "James" in Matt. 13:55/Mk. 6:3, "James the brother of the Lord," "Apostle James of Alphaeus," "James the Bishop of Jerusalem," "James the Less," "James the Just," and the author of the Epistle of James were the same, and (ii) he, Simon, Joseph, and Jude (Judas) were sons of Joseph's brother (sibling), Alphaeus (Cleophas/Clopas), and Mary of Joseph's sister-in-law, Mary of Cleophas/Clopas, and thus Jesus's brothers, as in "kinsmen," specifically cousins.



"'εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ (adelphe) τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ, Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή'(Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene). (Jn. 19:25)

You, not me, said, "...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion," and thus if there's anybody who needs to accept that the word "ἀδελφὴ" (adelphe) in Jn. 19:25 either means Mary of Cleophas/Clopas was Mary of Joseph's sibling or a fellow believer it's you. Therefore, since, according to you, those are the only two options, why are you calling them sisters-in-law, and why did the NT authors use the word "ἀδελφὴ" (adelphe) which, according to you, cannot be used to describe this type of relationship?

We can keep bouncing over this till the cows come home. all you use is your speculation wiuth little evidence as do I! what you need to prove is that in the NEW TESTAMENT written in koine greek originally and had perfectly good words for cousin, that Matthew meant to write brethren (adelphos) when in reality these were jesus' cousins.

we are looking at the false doctrines of Mary's pereptual virginity and Jesus being an only child! YOu need to prove this fact. You can sho how translators used a word in Genesis, but that doesn't mean diddly in poroving James, Joses, Simon and Judah were cousins of Jesus and not his half brothers, especially in light of New Testament definitions for adelphois give no quarter for it meaning a cousin, nephew etc. I concede th eOT and gave the reasons why, but now you have to prove that a translated word for an OT Hebrew Word to Greek means the same for Matt. 13.

 

[GtoR]

Matt. 27:56 says, "…among whom were Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James and Joseph, and the mother of the sons of Zebedee".

Mark 15:40 states, "There were also women looking on from afar, among whom were Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James the younger and of Joses, and Salome".

Finally, John 19:25 states, "But standing by the cross of Jesus were his mother, and his mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene".

Salome is the sister of Jesus and wife to Zebedee, who asked her brother Jesus, if her two sons, James and John the nephews of Jesus, might sit on the right and left of his throne when he became King of Israel.

It was not uncommon for men of Galilee in those days to carry three names, one in Hebrew, one in Greek, and one in Aramaic. ‘Alexander Helios III,’ who is said to have been murdered in 13 BC, by order of Herod the Great, in the pogroms which saw the demise of many of the heirs to David’s throne, when his daughter Mary was about 7 years old, and Alexander Helios=Heli, had sired ‘Joseph son of Heli’ the biological father of Jesus, (According to Luke 3: 23) prior to his marriage of convenience to Hanna the mother of Mary.

Luke 3: 23; Reveals that Joseph the son of Heli=Alexander Helios III, a descendant of Nathan the son of King David, was the father of Jesus. The (AS WAS SUPPOSED) was a later interpolation, by those who refuse to accept that Jesus was born of the flesh by two human parents, and was later born ‘Son of God’ when he came out of the baptismal waters of the Jordon, as the spirit of our Lord God and saviour descended upon him in the form of a dove, and the heavenly voice was heard to say; “You are my son (My chosen heir and successor) ‘THIS DAY’ I have begotten thee,” or as said in Hebrew 5: 5; “You are my son ‘TODAY’ I have become your Father.

Alexander Helios III, the grandfather of Jesus, and father to Joseph the father of Jesus, would have been seen as a father of renowned. Alphaeus and Cleophas, in Young’s Analytical Concordance Subject Guide, are said to be one and the same person: From the Subject Guide; “Cleophas: husband of Mary, also called Alphaeus.” And we know that Alphaeus, who is one and the same person as Cleophas, is the biological father of James the younger of Mary’s three biological sons, and of the four male brethren of Jesus, his only full brother.

Joseph ben Heli, as opposed to Joseph ben Jacob, was the biological father of Jesus, and the son of Alexander Helios III=Heli, a father of renowned who is said to have been murdered by Herod the Great in 13 BC, and ‘Cleophas’, which is the Masculine form of Cleopatra, carries the Greek meaning: “Of a renowned father,” and ‘Alphaeus’, is the Aramaic of the same meaning: “Of a renowned father.” (Alexander Helios III the grandfather of Jesus, is a father of renowned).

Joseph=Hebrew, Cleophas=Greek, and Alphaeus=Aramaic.

Joseph the son of Alexander Helios III=Heli, is one and the same person as Alphaeus the father of James, the younger of MARYS only three biological sons and the only full brother of Jesus.

IMO, I believe that there is enough circumstantial evidence to reveal that Joseph the second son of Mary, was brought up by his father 'Joseph ben Jacob' in the town of Arimathea, and Simeon and Jude, are the nephews of Joseph ben Heli, the brother to Mary Magdalene from who Jesus drove out seven demons.

 

[BreadOfLife]

Salome is the sister of Jesus and wife to Zebedee, who asked her brother Jesus, if her two sons, James and John the nephews of Jesus, might sit on the right and left of his throne when he became King of Israel.

It was not uncommon for men of Galilee in those days to carry three names, one in Hebrew, one in Greek, and one in Aramaic. ‘Alexander Helios III,’ who is said to have been murdered in 13 BC, by order of Herod the Great, in the pogroms which saw the demise of many of the heirs to David’s throne, when his daughter Mary was about 7 years old, and Alexander Helios=Heli, had sired ‘Joseph son of Heli’ the biological father of Jesus, (According to Luke 3: 23) prior to his marriage of convenience to Hanna the mother of Mary.

Luke 3: 23; Reveals that Joseph the son of Heli=Alexander Helios III, a descendant of Nathan the son of King David, was the father of Jesus. The (AS WAS SUPPOSED) was a later interpolation, by those who refuse to accept that Jesus was born of the flesh by two human parents, and was later born ‘Son of God’ when he came out of the baptismal waters of the Jordon, as the spirit of our Lord God and saviour descended upon him in the form of a dove, and the heavenly voice was heard to say; “You are my son (My chosen heir and successor) ‘THIS DAY’ I have begotten thee,” or as said in Hebrew 5: 5; “You are my son ‘TODAY’ I have become your Father.

Alexander Helios III, the grandfather of Jesus, and father to Joseph the father of Jesus, would have been seen as a father of renowned. Alphaeus and Cleophas, in Young’s Analytical Concordance Subject Guide, are said to be one and the same person: From the Subject Guide; “Cleophas: husband of Mary, also called Alphaeus.” And we know that Alphaeus, who is one and the same person as Cleophas, is the biological father of James the younger of Mary’s three biological sons, and of the four male brethren of Jesus, his only full brother.

Joseph ben Heli, as opposed to Joseph ben Jacob, was the biological father of Jesus, and the son of Alexander Helios III=Heli, a father of renowned who is said to have been murdered by Herod the Great in 13 BC, and ‘Cleophas’, which is the Masculine form of Cleopatra, carries the Greek meaning: “Of a renowned father,” and ‘Alphaeus’, is the Aramaic of the same meaning: “Of a renowned father.” (Alexander Helios III the grandfather of Jesus, is a father of renowned).

Joseph=Hebrew, Cleophas=Greek, and Alphaeus=Aramaic.

Joseph the son of Alexander Helios III=Heli, is one and the same person as Alphaeus the father of James, the younger of MARYS only three biological sons and the only full brother of Jesus.

IMO, I believe that there is enough circumstantial evidence to reveal that Joseph the second son of Mary, was brought up by his father 'Joseph ben Jacob' in the town of Arimathea, and Simeon and Jude, are the nephews of Joseph ben Heli, the brother to Mary Magdalene from who Jesus drove out seven demons.

This is so radically idiotic - it's NOT even worth getting into a debate about it.
For starters, Jesus' "biological" Father is GOD (Luke 1:35), not Joseph . . .

 

[Accurist]

You can sho how translators used a word in Genesis, but that doesn't mean diddly in poroving James, Joses, Simon and Judah were cousins of Jesus and not his half brothers, especially in light of New Testament definitions for adelphois give no quarter for it meaning a cousin, nephew etc.

...you have to prove that a translated word for an OT Hebrew Word to Greek means the same for Matt. 13.

Uncles, nephews, and cousins, etc., are encompassed under "kinsman." I've proven "kinsman" is one of the definitions of the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos). I never said this fact in itself proves Simon, Joseph, James, and Jude (Judas) in Matt. 13:55/Mk. 6:3 were Jesus's kinsmen, specifically cousins. It's the scriptural verses and testimonials of early Christians in the OP that illustrate (i) "James" in Matt. 13:55/Mk. 6:3, "James the brother of the Lord," "Apostle James of Alphaeus," "James the Bishop of Jerusalem," "James the Less," "James the Just," and the author of the Epistle of James were the same, and that (ii) he, Simon, Joseph, and Jude (Judas) were sons of Joseph's brother (sibling), Alphaeus (Cleophas/Clopas), and Mary of Joseph's sister-in-law, Mary of Cleophas/Clopas, and thus Jesus's brothers, as in "kinsmen," specifically cousins.

Your homework:

(i) Show when "kinsman" was abandoned as one of the definitions for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

(ii) Explain why there are Lexicons, e.g., Lidell-Scott-Jones, Mounce, etc., including the definition "kinsman" for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) if it was abandoned post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

(iii) Explain why the testimonies of the early Christians quoted in the OP are not credible.

and if you still want to have a snit over Mary's sister in l;aw being called adelphoi, then you have to accept that Mary had a blood sister from her parents named Mary also. So in her immediate family there were two Mary's.

"εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ (adelphe) τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ, Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή" (Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene). (Jn. 19:25)

You, not me, said, "...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion," and thus if there's anybody who needs to accept that the word "ἀδελφὴ" (adelphe) in Jn. 19:25 either means Mary of Cleophas/Clopas was Mary of Joseph's sibling or a fellow believer it's you. Furthermore, since according to you those are the only two options, why are you calling them sisters-in-law, and why did the NT authors use the word "ἀδελφὴ" (adelphe) which cannot be used to describe this type of relationship?

 

[Ronald Nolette]

Your homework:

(i) Show when "kinsman" was abandoned as one of the definitions for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

(ii) Explain why there are Lexicons, e.g., Lidell-Scott-Jones, Mounce, etc., including the definition "kinsman" for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) if it was abandoned post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

(iii) Explain why the testimonies of the early Christians quoted in the OP are not credible.

Well I do not know if I can do that. Many of these commentors show that adelphos is kinsmen in OT usage. I have no problem with that as I have repeatedly said! YOu have failed to show that any linguistic commentator used adelphos to mean just kinsmen like cousin once in the NT!

• ESUS' HALF BROTHERS MEANS COUSINS OR NEPHEWS.And that doesn't do anything to prove thaT ADELPHOIS IN MATT. 13 DESCRIBING

why don't you show why , Strongs, Wuest, Dobson, Zodhiates, and Fruchtenbaum in their Greek works do not add kinsmen for the NT.

 

[Ronald Nolette]

You, not me, said, "...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion," and thus if there's anybody who needs to accept that the word "ἀδελφὴ" (adelphe) in Jn. 19:25 either means Mary of Cleophas/Clopas was Mary of Joseph's sibling or a fellow believer it's you. Furthermore, since according to you those are the only two options, why are you calling them sisters-in-law, and why did the NT authors use the word "ἀδελφὴ" (adelphe) which cannot be used to describe this type of relationship?

YOu cannot see the trees for the forest nor can you see the forest for th etrees. Once last time I will explain this to you.

Way back then,m they was no koine word for "in-law" (Peters mother in law was referred to as Peters wifes' mother). sister by marriage was a perfectly good use of adelpoi in the case. If you can't accept that- that is a problem I cannot help you fix.

 

[Ronald Nolette]

Uncles, nephews, and cousins, etc., are encompassed under "kinsman." I've proven "kinsman" is one of the definitions of the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos). I never said this fact in itself proves Simon, Joseph, James, and Jude (Judas) in Matt. 13:55/Mk. 6:3 were Jesus's kinsmen, specifically cousins. It's the scriptural verses and testimonials of early Christians in the OP that illustrate (i) "James" in Matt. 13:55/Mk. 6:3, "James the brother of the Lord," "Apostle James of Alphaeus," "James the Bishop of Jerusalem," "James the Less," "James the Just," and the author of the Epistle of James were the same, and that (ii) he, Simon, Joseph, and Jude (Judas) were sons of Joseph's brother (sibling), Alphaeus (Cleophas/Clopas), and Mary of Joseph's sister-in-law, Mary of Cleophas/Clopas, and thus Jesus's brothers, as in "kinsmen," specifically cousins.

There is no Scriptural evidence. The evidence speaks against these being male and female cousins. Matt. 1 clearly and unambiguously shows Mary and Joseph had sex after Jesus was born. Ansd just in case you didn't know, having intercourse can and does produce babies!!!

Just remember, Mary,'s cousin Elizabeth was called syngenes in the gospel.

1. of the same kin, akin to, related by blood
   
   
2. in a wider sense, of the same nation, a fellow countryman
   

Men may be the author of confusion, but god is not. He is not going to used the corrfect word for cuosain in Luke 1 and a wrong word in NT times for cousin in Matt. 13. that is a RCC invention

There are many James in the bible.

Jmaes the Lords brother was killed in Acts 12. After Paul had met Him!

All the rest trying to tag certain James with certain positions, some are right and some are just speculations by men trying to make everythin in a neat tight package but cannot be known for certain.

 

[GtoR]

Just remember, Mary,'s cousin Elizabeth was called syngenes in the gospel.

The great grandfather of the biblical Jesus was Yehoshua/Jesus III, who was the high priest in Jerusalem from 36 to 23 BC and is believed to have been murdered at the orders of Herod the Great. The sonless Yehoshua, had three daughters, Joanna, Elizabeth and Anna/Hanna, whose mother was Phanuel from the tribe of Asher.

Knowing that his Zadokian lineage would become extinct unless his daughters were placed with future husbands according to the Torah, he married them off to chosen husbands.

Joanna, was betrothed to Joachim from the non-royal genetic lineage of David. The second daughter of Yehoshua III, was Elizabeth. This was the Elizabeth, who, at a very advanced age was to become the mother of John the Baptist in 7 BC, a year before the birth of Jesus and some 16 years after the death of her father ‘Yehoshua/Jesus III,’ in 23 BC, and she was betrothed to a Levite priest by the name Zacharias of the priestly course of Abijah.

And Hanna/Anna was married to the young Davidian prince Heli, [Alexander Helios III] the son, or adopted son of Mattathias ben Levi. (This was a marriage of convenience, arranged by the Northern Zealots and her father, whose aim was to place a man on the throne of David and free Israel from the Yoke of Roman rule.)


Hanna was the mother of Mary, and her sister Elizabeth, was the mother of John the Baptist, making Elizabeth the aunty of Mary, who was the first cousin to the Baptist.

 

[GtoR]

This is so radically idiotic - it's NOT even worth getting into a debate about it.
For starters, Jesus' "biological" Father is GOD (Luke 1:35), not Joseph . . .

The Evangelists wrote in Greek rather than in Hebrew...at that time only the capital letters of the Greek alphabet were used in writing, without diacritics, punctuation, or separation between words. Lower case letters appeared only in the ninth century, together with spacing between words. Punctuation marks were introduced only with the invention of the printing press in the 15th century. The present separations of chapters were introduced by Cardinal Hugo in the 13th century.

“Woman without her man is nothing,” But without punctuation, what is being said here? “Woman without her man, is nothing;” or “Woman! Without her, man is nothing.”

The erroneous punctuation which was added by the Roman church of Emperor Constantine in the 15th century, which makes it appear that there were actually three women at the cross by the name Mary, does not reflect the truth as revealed in the scriptures, and that is, that there were only two women by the name ‘MARY’ at the cross of Jesus, and they were his mother, and his mother’s sister, or sister-in-law (Who are) Mary the wife of Cleophas and Mary Magdalene.

As said previously, it was not uncommon for men in Galilee in those days to carry three names, one Hebrew, one Greek and one Aramaic.

Thomas=Tau’ma, the Aramaic for twin, is also called Didymus, which is the Greek for twin, he is Thomas/twin, Didymus/twin, Jude, the brethren of Jesus and the son or adopted son of the carpenter.

Matthew 13:55 55"Isn't this the carpenter's son? Isn't his mother's name Mary, and aren't his brothers James, Joseph, Simon and Judas? GNB.

Excerpts from “The Acts of Thomas-Wikipedia.”

Acts of Thomas is a series of episodic Acts (Latin passio) that occurred during the evangelistic mission of Judas Thomas ("Judas the Twin") to India. It ends with his martyrdom: he dies pierced with spears, having earned the ire of the monarch Misdaeus (Vasudeva I) because of his conversion of Misdaeus' wives and a relative, Charisius. He was imprisoned while converting Indian followers won through the performing of miracles.

Thomas is often referred to by his name Judas (his full name is Thomas Judas Didymus), since both Thomas and Didymus just mean twin, and several scholars believe that twin is just a description, and not intended as a name. The manuscripts end "The acts of Judas Thomas the apostle are completed, which he did in India, fulfilling the commandment of him that sent him. Unto whom be glory, world without end. Amen.".

A local tradition of eastern Syria identifies the Apostle Jude with Jude Thomas who was called ‘The Twin’ also known as Thomas (Aramaic), Didymus (Greek), and Jude (Hebrew.)

Knowing that in ART, Thomas Didymus Jude, the son or adopted son of Alphaeus/Cleophas, is depicted with a, carpenter’s rule and square. In "The Acts of Thomas, sometimes called by its full name, "The Acts of Judas Thomas," 2nd-3rd century CE, "The Apostles cast lots as to where they should go, and to Thomas, brother to Jesus fell India. Thomas was taken to King Goddophares the ruler of Indo-Pathian Kingdom as an architect and carpenter by Habban.”

Jude, the brother of the Lord according to the flesh, both having the same father, Joseph-Cleophas-Alphaeus, who was the son of Alexander Helios/Heli, but born of different wombs, was called the apostle of many names, as he was also called Thaddaeus and Lebbaeus, the Greek and Aramaic words for ‘courageous.’ So, Jude the brother of the Lord is the courageous apostle called ‘The Twin,’ and he should not be confused with the apostle whose actual name was ‘Thomas.’

‘We must now ask the question, "Who is the Carpenter to whom Mary was married at that time, when her family consisted of Jesus, James the younger, Joseph, Simon and Judas? Was it Joseph the son of Jacob from the tribe of Judah, who was her first legitimate husband, or was it Alphaeus/Cleophas the second husband of Mary and the Father of James the younger, the biological sons of Mary and the youngest boy in the family, plus Simon and Judas, who is also called Thomas Didymus Jude, meaning twin?

Hegesippus, mentions descendants of Jude living in the reign of Domitian, 81-96 AD.

In his book, “Historia Ecclesiae” Eusebius wrote; “But when the same Domitian had commanded the descendants of David should be slain, an ancient tradition says that some of the heretics brought accusations against the descendants of Jude (Said to have been a brother of the saviour according to the flesh) on the grounds that they were of the lineage of David and were related to Christ himself.

Hegesippus relates these facts in the following words; “Of the family of the Lord there were still living the grandchildren of Jude (The Twin) who is said to have been the Lord’s brother according to the flesh.

Although the bible calls Thomas Jude, ‘The twin,” it is not known if he was an actual twin, or if he simply held a striking resemblance to one of the sons in the house hold of Mary and the carpenter, Joseph/Alpheaus/Cleophas.

 

[Accurist]

Your homework:

(i) Show when "kinsman" was abandoned as one of the definitions for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

(ii) Explain why there are Lexicons, e.g., Lidell-Scott-Jones, Mounce, etc., including the definition "kinsman" for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) if it was abandoned post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

(iii) Explain why the testimonies of the early Christians quoted in the OP are not credible.

Well I do not know if I can do that.

You won't know until you try. So, don't reply until you've tried.

Matt. 1 clearly and unambiguously shows Mary and Joseph had sex after Jesus was born. Ansd just in case you didn't know, having intercourse can and does produce babies!!!

It doesn't but since you think it does I'll tell you that believing Joseph and Mary had sex doesn't prove Simon, Joseph, James, and Jude (Judas) were their children.

As for John 19: 25 Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene.

...Mary of Cleophas ... was Mary's sister in law

"εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ (adelphe) τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ, Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή" (Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene). (Jn. 19:25)

You said, "...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion." This means, according to you, Mary of Joseph's sister Mary of Cleophas/Clopas could've only been Her sibling or fellow believer and not anything else, such as a sister-in-law, etc. Do you see your problem calling them sisters-in-law?

Just remember, Mary,'s cousin Elizabeth was called syngenes in the gospel.

In Lk. 1:36 the word "συγγενίς" (syngeneís) was used, and one of the definitions is "kinsman," or "kinswoman." Mary of Joseph's and Elizabeth's exact relationship cannot be determined from this word alone. Where do your beliefs that definition applies in this verse and Mary of Joseph and Elizabeth were cousins stem from?

 

[Ronald Nolette]

The great grandfather of the biblical Jesus was Yehoshua/Jesus III, who was the high priest in Jerusalem from 36 to 23 BC and is believed to have been murdered at the orders of Herod the Great. The sonless Yehoshua, had three daughters, Joanna, Elizabeth and Anna/Hanna, whose mother was Phanuel from the tribe of Asher.

Knowing that his Zadokian lineage would become extinct unless his daughters were placed with future husbands according to the Torah, he married them off to chosen husbands.

Joanna, was betrothed to Joachim from the non-royal genetic lineage of David. The second daughter of Yehoshua III, was Elizabeth. This was the Elizabeth, who, at a very advanced age was to become the mother of John the Baptist in 7 BC, a year before the birth of Jesus and some 16 years after the death of her father ‘Yehoshua/Jesus III,’ in 23 BC, and she was betrothed to a Levite priest by the name Zacharias of the priestly course of Abijah.

And Hanna/Anna was married to the young Davidian prince Heli, [Alexander Helios III] the son, or adopted son of Mattathias ben Levi. (This was a marriage of convenience, arranged by the Northern Zealots and her father, whose aim was to place a man on the throne of David and free Israel from the Yoke of Roman rule.)


Hanna was the mother of Mary, and her sister Elizabeth, was the mother of John the Baptist, making Elizabeth the aunty of Mary, who was the first cousin to the Baptist.

Don't know where you got all this stuff, but it is wrong!

In the lineage in Luke (Josephs lineage) Matthat was Jesus grandfather.

In the lineage of Matthew (Mary's) its Matthan

 

[Ronald Nolette]

You won't know until you try. So, don't reply until you've tried.

Been there done that many times in the past 47 years, maybe it is you who needs to do homework.

It doesn't but since you think it does I'll tell you that believing Joseph and Mary had sex doesn't prove Simon, Joseph, James, and Jude (Judas) were their children.

It does show they had sex- you just don't wish to admit it! But it doesn't prove they had four half brothers and at least 2 half sisters for Jesus, Matt. 13 does that.

If Matthew intended cousins or further kinsfolk- He would have used syngenes or anepsis. do some work.

You said, "...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion." This means, according to you, Mary of Joseph's sister Mary of Cleophas/Clopas could've only been Her sibling or fellow believer and not anything else, such as a sister-in-law, etc. Do you see your problem calling them sisters-in-law?

already answered multiple time. Move on or seek professional help. Insanity is repeating the same thing over and over hoping for a differing result. There won't be! According to me- sister in law ios a correct use of adelphoi in the NT go find out for yourself if you do not choose to believe me!

In Lk. 1:36 the word "συγγενίς" (syngeneís) was used, and one of the definitions is "kinsman," or "kinswoman." Mary of Joseph's and Elizabeth's exact relationship cannot be determined from this word alone. Where do your beliefs that definition applies in this verse and Mary of Joseph and Elizabeth were cousins stem from?

well that I have to apologize for. I should have ceased writing sooner that day. I have been recovering from heart surgery and I should have said aunt. My bad there. so with me admitting a mistake, I am sure you are relishing the thought of ripping everything else as well. Feel free if you wish, but it still won't change the fact you cannot prove James , Joses, Simon and Judah and Jesus' sisters were cousins just from NT use of Greek as the original language also given that syngenes and anepsis were words Matthew should have used if they were not brothers and sisters.,

Instead of nitpicking my foibles ( not the first and own't be the last) to try to distract, why not present evidence that these are not Jesus' half brothers and sisters.

 

[Accurist]

Your homework:

(i) Show when "kinsman" was abandoned as one of the definitions for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

(ii) Explain why there are Lexicons, e.g., Lidell-Scott-Jones, Mounce, etc., including the definition "kinsman" for the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) if it was abandoned post-Septuagint and pre-New Testament.

(iii) Explain why the testimonies of the early Christians quoted in the OP are not credible.

Well I do not know if I can do that.

Try doing the homework above. Let me know if you tried and failed.

If Matthew intended cousins or further kinsfolk- He would have used syngenes or anepsis. do some work.

More than one or two words can be used to convey the same thing. Matthew used the word "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) and one of its definitions is "kinsman," e.g., uncle, nephew, cousin, etc., and through marriage and lineage Simon, Joseph, James, and Jude (Judas) were Jesus's kinsmen, specifically cousins.

As for John 19: 25 Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene.

...Mary of Cleophas ... was Mary's sister in law

"εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ (adelphe) τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ, Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή" (Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene). (Jn. 19:25)

You shouldn't call Mary of Cleophas/Clopas a "sister-in-law" if you stand by saying, "...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion," which means, according to you, she could've only been Mary of Joseph's sibling or fellow believer and not anything else, including sister-in-law, etc.

...Mary,'s cousin Elizabeth

I should have said aunt. My bad there.

In Lk. 1:36 the word "συγγενίς" (syngeneís) was used, and its definitions are "kinsman," or "kinswoman," e.g., aunt, cousin, etc., and "fellow countryman." Where does your belief Elizabeth was Mary of Joseph's kin, specifically Her aunt, stem from?

 

[Ronald Nolette]

Try doing the homework above. Let me know if you tried and failed.



More than one or two words can be used to convey the same thing. Matthew used the word "ἀδελφοὶ" (adelphoi) and one of its definitions is "kinsman," e.g., uncle, nephew, cousin, etc., and through marriage and lineage Simon, Joseph, James, and Jude (Judas) were Jesus's kinsmen, specifically cousins.



"εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ (adelphe) τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ, Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή" (Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene). (Jn. 19:25)

You shouldn't call Mary of Cleophas/Clopas a "sister-in-law" if you stand by saying, "...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion," which means, according to you, she could've only been Mary of Joseph's sibling or fellow believer and not anything else, including sister-in-law, etc.



In Lk. 1:36 the word "συγγενίς" (syngeneís) was used, and its definitions are "kinsman," or "kinswoman," e.g., aunt, cousin, etc., and "fellow countryman." Where does your belief Elizabeth was Mary of Joseph's kin, specifically Her aunt, stem from?

Transliteration
adelphos ἄλφα (G1) (as a connective particle) and delphus (the womb)
Greek Inflections of ἀδελφός ἀδελφέ — 5x
Ἀδελφέ — 1x
ἀδελφοὶ — 30x
ἀδελφοί — 111x
Ἀδελφοί — 8x
ἀδελφοῖς — 17x
ἀδελφὸν — 33x
ἀδελφόν — 9x
ἀδελφὸς — 28x
ἀδελφός — 15x
ἀδελφοῦ — 17x
ἀδελφοὺς — 28x
ἀδελφούς — 11x
ἀδελφῷ — 13x
ἀδελφῶν — 20x
Dictionary Aids
Vine's Expository Dictionary: brethren (226x), brother (113x), brother's (6x), brother's way (1x).
Outline of Biblical Usage [?]

1. a brother, whether born of the same two parents or only of the same father or mother
   
   
2. having the same national ancestor, belonging to the same people, or countryman
   
   
3. any fellow or man
   
   
4. a fellow believer, united to another by the bond of affection
   
   
5. an associate in employment or office
   
   
6. brethren in Christ
   
   
   1. his brothers by blood
      
      
   2. all men
      
      
   3. apostles
      
      
   4. Christians, as those who are exalted to the same heavenly place
      

When used to retranslate from Hebrew?aramiac to greek for the OT yes. As I explained to you too many times already. But for NT writings in greek? NO NO NO! Get some help

The rest I have already answered. repeating your irrelavent comments over and over just demeans you.

 

[Accurist]

Transliteration
adelphos ἄλφα (G1) (as a connective particle) and delphus (the womb)
Greek Inflections of ἀδελφός ἀδελφέ — 5x
Ἀδελφέ — 1x
ἀδελφοὶ — 30x
ἀδελφοί — 111x
Ἀδελφοί — 8x
ἀδελφοῖς — 17x
ἀδελφὸν — 33x
ἀδελφόν — 9x
ἀδελφὸς — 28x
ἀδελφός — 15x
ἀδελφοῦ — 17x
ἀδελφοὺς — 28x
ἀδελφούς — 11x
ἀδελφῷ — 13x
ἀδελφῶν — 20x
Dictionary Aids
Vine's Expository Dictionary: brethren (226x), brother (113x), brother's (6x), brother's way (1x).
Outline of Biblical Usage [?]

1. a brother, whether born of the same two parents or only of the same father or mother
   
   
2. having the same national ancestor, belonging to the same people, or countryman
   
   
3. any fellow or man
   
   
4. a fellow believer, united to another by the bond of affection
   
   
5. an associate in employment or office
   
   
6. brethren in Christ
   1. his brothers by blood
      
      
   2. all men
      
      
   3. apostles
      
      
   4. Christians, as those who are exalted to the same heavenly place

When used to retranslate from Hebrew?aramiac to greek for the OT yes. As I explained to you too many times already. But for NT writings in greek? NO NO NO! Get some help

One of the definitions of the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) is "kinsman:"

ἀδελφός (adelphos; plural adelphoi)
Definitions
Liddell-Scott-Jones

2. kinsman, ib.Ge.13.8, al.;...

ἀδελφός (adelphos; plural adelphoi)
Definitions
Mounce

...near kinsman, or relative;

I. "Mary the wife of Cleophas or Alphaeus, who was the mother of James the bishop and apostle, and of Simon and Thaddeus, and of one Joseph." (Papias of Hierapolis [c. 60–130 AD], Λογίων Κυριακῶν Ἐξήγησις: Frag. 10, cf. Jn. 19:25)

II. "...James, who is called the brother of the Lord ... as appears to me, the son of Mary sister of the mother of our Lord ... after ordained by the apostles bishop of Jerusalem, wrote a single epistle, which is reckoned among the seven Catholic epistles" and "...Mary who is described as the mother of James the Less was the wife of Alphaeus and sister of Mary the Lord's mother" (Jerome of Stridon [c. 347–420 CE], De Viris Illustribus, De Perpetua Uirginitate Beatae Mariae, cf. Jn. 19:25)

III. Eusebius of Caesarea [c. 260–340 AD] relates the following in his Historia Ecclesiastica:

James, the brother of the Lord, was the "...author of the first of the so-called catholic epistles" and that while it is disputed, "as is the case likewise with the epistle that bears the name of Jude, which is also one of the seven so-called catholic epistles," it is known they have been "...read publicly in very many churches." (Bk. I, ch. 23)

"James ... surnamed the Just ... bishop of the church of Jerusalem. This James was called the brother of the Lord..." and "Paul also makes mention of the same James the Just, where he writes, 'Other of the apostles saw I none, save James the Lord's brother.'" (Bk. II, ch. 1)

"...those of the apostles and disciples of the Lord ... with those that were related to the Lord according to the flesh ... pronounced Symeon (Simon), the son of Clopas ... to be worthy of the episcopal throne of that parish. He was a cousin, as they say, of the Saviour. For Hegesippus records that Clopas was a brother of Joseph." (Bk. III, ch. 11)

"...James the Just bishop of Jerusalem" and "...but there were two Jameses: one called the Just ... thrown from the pinnacle of the temple ... and beaten to death with a club by a fuller, and another who was beheaded." (Bk. II, ch. 1) (Clement of Alexandria [c. 150–215 AD], Hypotyposes, Bk. VII, cf. Ac. 12:1-2)

"...James the brother of the Lord, succeeded to the government of the Church ... called the Just ..." (Bk. II, ch. 23) and "after James the Just had suffered martyrdom ... Symeon (Simon), the son of the Lord's uncle, Clopas, was appointed the next bishop ... because he was a cousin of the Lord." (Bk. III, ch. 22) (Hegesippus [c. 110-180 AD], Hypomnemata)

The scriptural verses in the OP and testimonials of prominent early Christians above illustrate "James" in Mt. 13:55/Mk. 6:3, "James the brother of the Lord," "Apostle James of Alphaeus," "James the Bishop of Jerusalem," "James the Less," "James the Just," and the author of the Epistle of James were the same, and that he, Simon, Joseph, and Jude (Judas) were sons of Josephs' brother [sibling], Alphaeus (Cleophas/Clopas), and Mary of Josephs' sister-in-law, Mary of Cleophas/Clopas, and thus Jesus' brothers, as in "kinsmen," specifically cousins. This disproves the teaching that states they were Jesus' step-brothers and undermines the teaching that states they were half-brothers.

As for John 19: 25 Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene.

...Mary of Cleophas ... was Mary's sister in law

"εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ (adelphe) τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ, Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή" (Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene). (Jn. 19:25)

You shouldn't call Mary of Cleophas/Clopas a "sister-in-law" if you stand by saying, "...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion," which means, according to you, she could've only been Mary of Joseph's sibling or fellow believer and not anything else, including sister-in-law, etc.

...Mary,'s cousin Elizabeth

I should have said aunt. My bad there.

In Lk. 1:36 the word "συγγενίς" (syngeneís) was used, and its definitions are "kinsman," or "kinswoman," e.g., aunt, cousin, etc., and "fellow countryman." Where does your belief Elizabeth was Mary of Joseph's kin, specifically Her aunt, stem from?

 

[Ronald Nolette]

One of the definitions of the word "ἀδελφός" (adelphos) is "kinsman:"




I. "Mary the wife of Cleophas or Alphaeus, who was the mother of James the bishop and apostle, and of Simon and Thaddeus, and of one Joseph." (Papias of Hierapolis [c. 60–130 AD], Λογίων Κυριακῶν Ἐξήγησις: Frag. 10, cf. Jn. 19:25)

II. "...James, who is called the brother of the Lord ... as appears to me, the son of Mary sister of the mother of our Lord ... after ordained by the apostles bishop of Jerusalem, wrote a single epistle, which is reckoned among the seven Catholic epistles" and "...Mary who is described as the mother of James the Less was the wife of Alphaeus and sister of Mary the Lord's mother" (Jerome of Stridon [c. 347–420 CE], De Viris Illustribus, De Perpetua Uirginitate Beatae Mariae, cf. Jn. 19:25)

III. Eusebius of Caesarea [c. 260–340 AD] relates the following in his Historia Ecclesiastica:

James, the brother of the Lord, was the "...author of the first of the so-called catholic epistles" and that while it is disputed, "as is the case likewise with the epistle that bears the name of Jude, which is also one of the seven so-called catholic epistles," it is known they have been "...read publicly in very many churches." (Bk. I, ch. 23)

"James ... surnamed the Just ... bishop of the church of Jerusalem. This James was called the brother of the Lord..." and "Paul also makes mention of the same James the Just, where he writes, 'Other of the apostles saw I none, save James the Lord's brother.'" (Bk. II, ch. 1)

"...those of the apostles and disciples of the Lord ... with those that were related to the Lord according to the flesh ... pronounced Symeon (Simon), the son of Clopas ... to be worthy of the episcopal throne of that parish. He was a cousin, as they say, of the Saviour. For Hegesippus records that Clopas was a brother of Joseph." (Bk. III, ch. 11)

"...James the Just bishop of Jerusalem" and "...but there were two Jameses: one called the Just ... thrown from the pinnacle of the temple ... and beaten to death with a club by a fuller, and another who was beheaded." (Bk. II, ch. 1) (Clement of Alexandria [c. 150–215 AD], Hypotyposes, Bk. VII, cf. Ac. 12:1-2)

"...James the brother of the Lord, succeeded to the government of the Church ... called the Just ..." (Bk. II, ch. 23) and "after James the Just had suffered martyrdom ... Symeon (Simon), the son of the Lord's uncle, Clopas, was appointed the next bishop ... because he was a cousin of the Lord." (Bk. III, ch. 22) (Hegesippus [c. 110-180 AD], Hypomnemata)

The scriptural verses in the OP and testimonials of prominent early Christians above illustrate "James" in Mt. 13:55/Mk. 6:3, "James the brother of the Lord," "Apostle James of Alphaeus," "James the Bishop of Jerusalem," "James the Less," "James the Just," and the author of the Epistle of James were the same, and that he, Simon, Joseph, and Jude (Judas) were sons of Josephs' brother [sibling], Alphaeus (Cleophas/Clopas), and Mary of Josephs' sister-in-law, Mary of Cleophas/Clopas, and thus Jesus' brothers, as in "kinsmen," specifically cousins. This disproves the teaching that states they were Jesus' step-brothers and undermines the teaching that states they were half-brothers.



"εἱστήκεισαν δὲ παρὰ τῷ σταυρῷ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἡ ἀδελφὴ (adelphe) τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ, Μαρία ἡ τοῦ Κλωπᾶ καὶ Μαρία ἡ Μαγδαληνή" (Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene). (Jn. 19:25)

You shouldn't call Mary of Cleophas/Clopas a "sister-in-law" if you stand by saying, "...adelphe: 1. a full, own sister 2. one connected by the tie of the Christian religion," which means, according to you, she could've only been Mary of Joseph's sibling or fellow believer and not anything else, including sister-in-law, etc.



In Lk. 1:36 the word "συγγενίς" (syngeneís) was used, and its definitions are "kinsman," or "kinswoman," e.g., aunt, cousin, etc., and "fellow countryman." Where does your belief Elizabeth was Mary of Joseph's kin, specifically Her aunt, stem from?

As far as sister inlaw, dealt with that- move on.

and yes for the OT Septuagint adelphos was used of kinsmen in translating from the Hebrew. that also has been explained and Liddel/Scott, BDB, and even Mounce cite OT usage.

but NT Greek usage gives no room for cousin- that would have been either syngenes, or anepsis.