Why is Christianity so focused on Sin?

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mjrhealth

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We MUST confess our sins or we are not forgiven of them (1 John 1:9, James 5:16).
For YOU to say that you are "automatically" forgiven for all of your sins - past, present and future - without repenting, is a complete failure to understand the Gospel.
Falsehoods, hmmm now Jaames 5
What has james 5:16 got to do with Chirst

This says it all

Rom_5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
Rom_5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Rom_5:20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:
Rom_5:21 That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.
Rom_6:1 What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?
Rom_6:2 God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?
Rom_6:6 Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin.
Rom_6:7 For he that is dead is freed from sin.
Rom_6:10 For in that he died, he died unto sin once: but in that he liveth, he liveth unto God.
Rom_6:11 Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.
Rom_6:12 Let not sin therefore reign in your mortal body, that ye should obey it in the lusts thereof.
Rom_6:13 Neither yield ye your members as instruments of unrighteousness unto sin: but yield yourselves unto God, as those that are alive from the dead, and your members as instruments of righteousness unto God.
Rom_6:14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
Rom_6:15 What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid.
Rom_6:16 Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?
Rom_6:17 But God be thanked, that ye were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you.
Rom_6:18 Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness.
Rom_6:20 For when ye were the servants of sin, ye were free from righteousness.
Rom_6:22 But now being made free from sin, and become servants to God, ye have your fruit unto holiness, and the end everlasting life.
Rom_6:23 For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.

When you are dead in Christ you are no longer the servant of sin, it can longer :condmen you", for when you are dead in Christ you are dead to sin, does it mean you no longer sin, No. just means it can no longer slay you, as Christ took away the penalty of death by His own death, bur one must believe He did it or it means nothing. Etither He forgave you or He did not. Take your pick.
 

epostle1

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Stranger said:
Indeed, there is only one redemption.

The payment was for sin, in total. The person is not redeemed until he comes to Christ.

Stranger
Redemption is not the same as salvation. Jesus Christ redeemed the world is age-old, standard Christian teaching.

Yes, the whole world — which includes all atheists, all sinners, all people, even all things — was redeemed by the Blood of Christ that was shed for us on Calvary. Jesus paid the ransom (the word \”redemption\” literally means the \”buying back\” of a thing), and His atoning sacrifice opened the gates of Heaven, which had been previously closed to humanity due to Adam\’s sin.
”For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, who gave himself as a ransom for all….” 1 Timothy 2:5-6
The Cross redeemed all. Bam!
But (and it\’s a big but)… not everyone will choose to accept the redeeming love of God and its invitation to salvation. While God didn’t need our cooperation or permission to redeem us, without our cooperation and permission He will not save us. God is a gentleman, and He will not bring us into union with Him unless we desire that union. Redemption has come to all of us, thanks to Christ\’s atoning work on the Cross approximately 2,000 years ago, but salvation is an individual choice that we each must make, a gift that we can accept or reject even up to our dying breath.

Who is (1John 1:9) speaking to? Believers or non-believers? Again I ask you, does being 'unforgiven of them' mean we are back into hell?
It's an absurd question. Nobody confesses their sins to be "unforgiven".

And, again, does Christ's intersession mean getting us back into heaven, or does it mean we belong in heaven?
If we persevere we are headed to heaven. The Bible is quite clear on this.
You haven't answered anything, as usual.
Your questions are incoherent and ambiguous. I don't think you understand your own questions. Does 1 John 1:9 mean confess sins to thin air? How are the Apostles and their ordained successors supposed to forgive sins if they don't know what they are? Telepathy? Besides, this wonderful sacrament of reconciliation doesn't apply to you, since your forefathers abolished the priesthood.....sad.



 

BreadOfLife

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Stranger said:
Indeed, there is only one redemption.

The payment was for sin, in total. The person is not redeemed until he comes to Christ.

Stranger
Well, I can't say that your bizarre understanding of "redeem" is based on ignorance because I've given you the definition several times now.
The fact that you refuse to accept the definition speaks more to your spiritual pride.

ONE more time:
To "Redeem" means that something is paid for.

Jesus paid for . . . EVERYBODY.
 

BreadOfLife

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Stranger said:
Who is (1John 1:9) speaking to? Believers or non-believers? Again I ask you, does being 'unforgiven of them' mean we are back into hell?

And, again, does Christ's intersession mean getting us back into heaven, or does it mean we belong in heaven?

You haven't answered anything, as usual.

I see. It's games when you don't know what you're talking about. It's games when you can't answer the question, because you know the answer destroys your statements. Oh the games people play now.

Stranger
Why do you keep cherry-picking the Scriptures??
You keep posting 1 John 1:9 as if it is a stand alone verse with no other implications. Read it in CONTEXT:

1 John 1:6-19
If we claim to have fellowship with him and yet walk in the darkness, we lie and do not live out the truth. But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus, his Son, purifies us from all sin.

If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word is not in us.

This is about how to decipher TRUE repentance from false repentance.
It illustrated God's mercy and love on the CONDITION that we we do what we're supposed to.

As far as your other question that I have answered repeatedly - I'll try to dumb it down for you again:
You asked me if Christ's intercession gets us BACK into Heaven. You can't go BACK to where you've never been.

Have YOU ever been to Heaven? No??
Then how can you go BACK to Heaven?? Can you explain that?
 

Stranger

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BreadOfLife said:
Well, I can't say that your bizarre understanding of "redeem" is based on ignorance because I've given you the definition several times now.
The fact that you refuse to accept the definition speaks more to your spiritual pride.

ONE more time:
To "Redeem" means that something is paid for.

Jesus paid for . . . EVERYBODY.


Yes, I know 'redeem' means something is paid for. What is paid for is sin. Those who accept Christ as their Lord and Saviour are those who are redeemed.

Yes, Jesus paid for all sin, which includes everybody. But to be a recipient of that payment one must be in Christ. If you're not in Christ, you are not redeemed.

Stranger
 

Stranger

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BreadOfLife said:
Why do you keep cherry-picking the Scriptures??
You keep posting 1 John 1:9 as if it is a stand alone verse with no other implications. Read it in CONTEXT:

1 John 1:6-19
If we claim to have fellowship with him and yet walk in the darkness, we lie and do not live out the truth. But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus, his Son, purifies us from all sin.

If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word is not in us.

This is about how to decipher TRUE repentance from false repentance.
It illustrated God's mercy and love on the CONDITION that we we do what we're supposed to.

As far as your other question that I have answered repeatedly - I'll try to dumb it down for you again:
You asked me if Christ's intercession gets us BACK into Heaven. You can't go BACK to where you've never been.

Have YOU ever been to Heaven? No??
Then how can you go BACK to Heaven?? Can you explain that?
Again, who is (1John 1:9) speaking to? Believers or unbelievers?

Is Christ's intercession getting us back to a saved state, to where heaven is our destination, or is His intercession the result of us having already been saved where heaven is our destination?

Stranger
 

BreadOfLife

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Stranger said:
Yes, I know 'redeem' means something is paid for. What is paid for is sin. Those who accept Christ as their Lord and Saviour are those who are redeemed.

Yes, Jesus paid for all sin, which includes everybody. But to be a recipient of that payment one must be in Christ. If you're not in Christ, you are not redeemed.

Stranger
And there you go again truing to create TWO redemptions out of one.
The Bible doesn't talk about TWO redemptions. It doesn't say that Jesus paid for sin - and then He paid for the believer.

He paid for it ALL.
 

BreadOfLife

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Stranger said:
Again, who is (1John 1:9) speaking to? Believers or unbelievers?

Is Christ's intercession getting us back to a saved state, to where heaven is our destination, or is His intercession the result of us having already been saved where heaven is our destination?

Stranger
I'll dumb it down a little more . . .

- We come to Christ in Baptism. We are saved.
- We sin and our relationship with God is damaged.
- We repent and confess our sin and our relationship is restored.
- If we refuse to repent and confess - we LOSE our salvation.

I really hope that is simple enough for you to understand.


As for redemption - you STILL have it wrong . . .
 

Stranger

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BreadOfLife said:
And there you go again truing to create TWO redemptions out of one.
The Bible doesn't talk about TWO redemptions. It doesn't say that Jesus paid for sin - and then He paid for the believer.

He paid for it ALL.
Not true. Where did I create two redemptions?

And you still haven't answered my question I asked you back in post #18, and several times later. What do you mean by "being forgiven of them"?

Stranger
 

Stranger

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BreadOfLife said:
I'll dumb it down a little more . . .

- We come to Christ in Baptism. We are saved.
- We sin and our relationship with God is damaged.
- We repent and confess our sin and our relationship is restored.
- If we refuse to repent and confess - we LOSE our salvation.

I really hope that is simple enough for you to understand.


As for redemption - you STILL have it wrong . . .
When you say we can lose our salvation, I think you mean going back to a state where we are lost and destined for hell. If that is the case and we can lose it by not repenting and confessing, which I disagree, can we get it back?

Stranger
 

BreadOfLife

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Stranger said:
Not true. Where did I create two redemptions?

And you still haven't answered my question I asked you back in post #18, and several times later. What do you mean by "being forgiven of them"?

Stranger
In post #34 - YOU made the following statement:
"You have sin and you have the person. The sin is paid for. All of it.
The person is not redeemed until they are in Christ."


You created TWO redemptions. There is only ONE.
Either Jesus paid for it ALL - or He paid for nothing.


You are preaching a FALSE redemption.
 

BreadOfLife

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Stranger said:
When you say we can lose our salvation, I think you mean going back to a state where we are lost and destined for hell. If that is the case and we can lose it by not repenting and confessing, which I disagree, can we get it back?

Stranger
Salvation is a gift that requires our cooperation. When we don't cooperate with God's grace, we LOSE it.
When we DO cooperate with God's grace - it can be restored.

Are you really that dense that I have to keep repeating myself?
 

Born_Again

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BreadOfLife said:
Salvation is a gift that requires our cooperation. When we don't cooperate with God's grace, we LOSE it.
When we DO cooperate with God's grace - it can be restored.

Are you really that dense that I have to keep repeating myself?
Wow, mark this day on your calendar... I agree with BreadOfLife.. HAHA ;)
 

BreadOfLife

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Born_Again said:
Wow, mark this day on your calendar... I agree with BreadOfLife.. HAHA ;)
You knew this day HAD to come . . . ;)
 

epostle1

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BreadOfLife said:
Salvation is a gift that requires our cooperation. When we don't cooperate with God's grace, we LOSE it.
When we DO cooperate with God's grace - it can be restored.

Are you really that dense that I have to keep repeating myself?
Redemption is universal, salvation is not. Stranger has collapsed the two different terms (although related) into one, and refuses to budge, so it seems.
 

Stranger

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BreadOfLife said:
In post #34 - YOU made the following statement:
"You have sin and you have the person. The sin is paid for. All of it.
The person is not redeemed until they are in Christ."


You created TWO redemptions. There is only ONE.
Either Jesus paid for it ALL - or He paid for nothing.


You are preaching a FALSE redemption.
Not true. Jesus paying the price for sin is not redemption. It is paying the price for sin so that all can be redeemed. But all are not.

Jesus paid for all, because He paid for all sin. But all are not redeemed just because he paid for all sin. Only those in Christ are the redeemed, those who place faith in Jesus Christ.

Stranger
 

Stranger

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BreadOfLife said:
Salvation is a gift that requires our cooperation. When we don't cooperate with God's grace, we LOSE it.
When we DO cooperate with God's grace - it can be restored.

Are you really that dense that I have to keep repeating myself?
Explain what you are calling salvation. I said before what I think you meant. Tell me what you mean.

Stranger
 

Stranger

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Born_Again said:
Wow, mark this day on your calendar... I agree with BreadOfLife.. HAHA ;)
Yes...haha. Mark it well.

Stranger
 

mjrhealth

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Salvation is a gift that requires our cooperation. When we don't cooperate with God's grace, we LOSE it.
When we DO cooperate with God's grace - it can be restored.
I agree with the cooperating with God but how does one loose grace. If grace was removed because of our faults it is no longer grace. If we have to work at it than its no longer a gift its ends up something we must pay for and if we must pay for it its no longer grace, Grace is given because we are all screw ups and we need it, if we where perfect as He is perfect we would not need grace nor Him
 

BreadOfLife

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Stranger said:
Not true. Jesus paying the price for sin is not redemption. It is paying the price for sin so that all can be redeemed. But all are not.

Jesus paid for all, because He paid for all sin. But all are not redeemed just because he paid for all sin. Only those in Christ are the redeemed, those who place faith in Jesus Christ.

Stranger
And, unless you want to continue to spout the false Calvinist doctrine of Limited Atonement - He paid for EVERYONE.
Jesus paid the price for sin, thereby purchasing our freedom . This is REDEMPTION.

We must either choose to cooperate with that grace or reject it.